0 Journal of the House

MR. SPEAKER and MR. PRESIDENT: Your committee on conference on Senate amendments to HB 2042 submits the following report:

The House accedes to all Senate amendments to the bill, and your committee on conference further agrees to amend the bill as printed with Senate Committee amendments, as follows:

On page 1, by striking all in lines 10 through 33;

By striking all on pages 2 through 14;

On page 15, by striking all in lines 1 through 23; following line 23 by inserting:

"Section 1. Pursuant to K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 77-441, and amendments thereto, the department of health and environment is hereby authorized to adopt the following proposed permanent administrative rules and regulations concerning hazardous waste monitoring and permit application fees as identified and described in the economic impact statement prepared by the department on August 22, 2025, and provided to the senate committee on agriculture and natural resources on February 10, 2026: K.A.R. 28-31-10; and 28-31-10b.";

Also on page 15, in line 25, by striking all before "its";

And by renumbering sections accordingly;

On page 1, in the title, in line 1, by striking all after "concerning"; by striking all in lines 2 through 6; in line 7, by striking all before the period and inserting "administrative rules and regulations; relating to hazardous waste monitoring and permit application fees; authorizing the adoption of certain rules and regulations by the department of health and environment";

And your committee on conference recommends the adoption of this report.

Virgil Peck

Craig Bowser

Marci Fransico

Conferees on part of Senate

Ken Rahjes

Lance Neelly

Linda Featherston

Conferees on part of House

CONFERENCE COMMITTEE REPORT

MR. SPEAKER and MR. PRESIDENT: Your committee on conference on Senate amendments to HB 2114 submits the following report:

The House accedes to all Senate amendments to the bill, and your committee on conference further agrees to amend the bill as printed as Substitute for House Bill No. 2114 with Senate Committee of the Whole amendments, as follows:

On page 4, in line 18, by striking "$500" and inserting ":

(A) $250 for a hazard class A dam that does not qualify for an exemption provided for in K.S.A. 82a-301(d) or (e), and amendments thereto;

(B) $500 for a hazard class B dam; and

(C) $1,000 for a hazard class C dam";

Also on page 4, in line 23, after the stricken material by inserting "Post-Construction Permit Fee"; in line 24, after the stricken material by inserting "$200"; in line 25, after the stricken material by inserting "$400"; in line 26, after the stricken material by inserting "$800";

On page 6, in line 3, by striking "$1,500" and inserting "$1,000"; in line 4, by striking "$1,500" and inserting "$1,000"; in line 5, by striking "$2,500" and inserting "$2,000"; in line 6, by striking "$4,000" and inserting "$3,000";

On page 1, in the title, in line 6, before "requiring" by inserting "requiring post-construction permit fees to construct, modify or add to a water obstruction or to change or diminish the course, current or cross section of a stream;";

And your committee on conference recommends the adoption of this report.

Virgil Peck

Craig Bowser

Marci Fransico

Conferees on part of Senate

Ken Rahjes

Lance Neelly

Linda Featherston

Conferees on part of House

CONFERENCE COMMITTEE REPORT

MR. SPEAKER and MR. PRESIDENT: Your committee on conference on Senate amendments to HB 2116 submits the following report:

The House accedes to all Senate amendments to the bill, and your committee on conference further agrees to amend the bill as printed with Senate Committee of the Whole amendments, as follows:

On page 1, in line 16, by striking "2025" and inserting "2026";

And your committee on conference recommends the adoption of this report.

Elaine Bowers

Ron Ryckman

Oletha Faust Goudeau

Conferees on part of Senate

Emil Bergquist

Doug Blex

Linda Featherston

Conferees on part of House

CONFERENCE COMMITTEE REPORT

MR. SPEAKER and MR. PRESIDENT: Your committee on conference on Senate amendments to HB 2365 submits the following report:

The House accedes to all Senate amendments to the bill, and your committee on conference further agrees to amend the bill as printed with Senate Committee amendments, as follows:

On page 1, by striking all in lines 10 through 34;

By striking all on pages 2 through 38;

On page 39, by striking all in lines 1 through 31; following line 31, by inserting:

"Section 1. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 21-5701 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-5701. As used in K.S.A. 21-5701 through 21-5717, and amendments thereto:

(a) "Controlled substance" means any drug, substance or immediate precursor included in any of the schedules designated in K.S.A. 65-4105, 65-4107, 65-4109, 65-4111 and 65-4113, and amendments thereto.

(b) (1) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance that is intended for human consumption, and at least one of the following:

(A) The chemical structure of the substance is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance listed in or added to the schedules designated in K.S.A. 65-4105 or 65-4107, and amendments thereto;

(B) the substance has a stimulant, depressant or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system substantially similar to the stimulant, depressant or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance included in the schedules designated in K.S.A. 65-4105 or 65-4107, and amendments thereto; or

(C) with respect to a particular individual, such individual represents or intends the substance to have a stimulant, depressant or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system substantially similar to the stimulant, depressant or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance included in the schedules designated in K.S.A. 65-4105 or 65-4107, and amendments thereto.

(2) "Controlled substance analog" does not include:

(A) A controlled substance;

(B) a substance for which there is an approved new drug application; or

(C) a substance with respect to which an exemption is in effect for investigational use by a particular person under section 505 of the federal food, drug, and cosmetic act, 21 U.S.C. § 355, to the extent conduct with respect to the substance is permitted by the exemption.

(c) "Cultivate" means the planting or promotion of growth of five or more plants that contain or can produce controlled substances.

(d) "Distribute" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer from one person to another of some item whether or not there is an agency relationship. "Distribute" includes, but is not limited to, sale, offer for sale or any act that causes some item to be transferred from one person to another. "Distribute" does not include acts of administering, dispensing or prescribing a controlled substance as authorized by the pharmacy act of the state of Kansas, the uniform controlled substances act or otherwise authorized by law.

(e) (1) "Drug" means:

(A) Substances recognized as drugs in the official United States pharmacopeia, official homeopathic pharmacopoeia of the United States or official national formulary or any supplement to any of them;

(B) substances intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in humans or animals;

(C) substances, other than food, intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of humans or animals; and

(D) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in subparagraph (A), (B) or (C).

(2) "Drug" does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.

(f) (1) "Drug paraphernalia" means all equipment and materials of any kind that are used, or primarily intended or designed for use in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling or otherwise introducing into the human body a controlled substance and in violation of this act.

(2) "Drug paraphernalia" includes, but is not limited to:

(A) Kits used or intended for use in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing or harvesting any species of plant that is a controlled substance or from which a controlled substance can be derived;

(B) kits used or intended for use in manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing or preparing controlled substances;

(C) isomerization devices used or intended for use in increasing the potency of any species of plant that is a controlled substance;

(D) testing equipment used or intended for use in identifying or in analyzing the strength, effectiveness or purity of controlled substances;

(E) scales and balances used or intended for use in weighing or measuring controlled substances;

(F) diluents and adulterants, including, but not limited to, quinine hydrochloride, mannitol, mannite, dextrose and lactose that are used or intended for use in cutting controlled substances;

(G) separation gins and sifters used or intended for use in removing twigs and seeds from or otherwise cleaning or refining marijuana;

(H) blenders, bowls, containers, spoons and mixing devices used or intended for use in compounding controlled substances;

(I) capsules, balloons, envelopes, bags and other containers used or intended for use in packaging small quantities of controlled substances;

(J) containers and other objects used or intended for use in storing or concealing controlled substances;

(K) hypodermic syringes, needles and other objects used or intended for use in parenterally injecting controlled substances into the human body;

(L) objects used or primarily intended or designed for use in ingesting, inhaling or otherwise introducing marijuana, cocaine, hashish, hashish oil, phencyclidine (PCP), methamphetamine or amphetamine into the human body, such as:

(i) Metal, wooden, acrylic, glass, stone, plastic or ceramic pipes with or without screens, permanent screens, hashish heads or punctured metal bowls;

(ii) water pipes, bongs or smoking pipes designed to draw smoke through water or another cooling device;

(iii) carburetion pipes, glass or other heat-resistant tubes or any other device used, intended to be used or designed to be used to cause vaporization of a controlled substance for inhalation;

(iv) smoking and carburetion masks;

(v) roach clips, objects used to hold burning material, such as a marijuana cigarette, that has become too small or too short to be held in the hand;

(vi) miniature cocaine spoons and cocaine vials;

(vii) chamber smoking pipes;

(viii) carburetor smoking pipes;

(ix) electric smoking pipes;

(x) air-driven smoking pipes;

(xi) chillums;

(xii) bongs;

(xiii) ice pipes or chillers;

(xiv) any smoking pipe manufactured to disguise its intended purpose;

(xv) wired cigarette papers; or

(xvi) cocaine freebase kits.

(3) "Drug paraphernalia" does not include:

(A) Any products, chemicals or materials described in K.S.A. 21-5709(a), and amendments thereto; or

(B) any materials used or intended for use to test a substance for the presence of fentanyl, a fentanyl analog, ketamine or gamma hydroxybutyric acid.

(g) "Fentanyl-related controlled substance" means any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(4), (b)(10), (b)(11), (b)(12), (b)(15), (b)(16), (b)(17), (b)(20), (b)(21), (b)(24), (b)(26), (b)(27), (b)(28), (b)(35), (b)(42), (b)(43), (b)(44), (b)(45), (b)(48), (b)(50), (b)(54), (b)(55), (b)(56), (b)(57), (b)(58), (b)(59), (b)(68), (b)(70), (b)(71), (b)(72), (b)(73), (b)(74), (b)(75), (b)(76), (b)(77), (b)(78), (b)(79), (b)(80), (b)(81), (b)(82), (b)(83), (b)(84), (b)(85), (b)(91), (b)(97), (b)(98), (b)(99), (b)(103), (b)(104) (b)(66), (g)(1) or, (g)(2), (i) or 65-4107(c)(1), (c)(6), (c)(9), (c)(26), (c)(28), (c)(30), (f)(3)(A) or (f)(3)(B), and amendments thereto, or any analog thereof.

(h) "Immediate precursor" means a substance that the state board of pharmacy has found to be and by rules and regulations designates as being the principal compound commonly used or produced primarily for use and that is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of a controlled substance, the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail or limit manufacture.

(i) "Isomer" means all enantiomers and diastereomers.

(j) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of or placing into pill or capsule form a controlled substance either directly or indirectly or by extraction from substances of natural origin or independently by means of chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis. "Manufacture" does not include:

(1) The preparation or compounding of a controlled substance by an individual for the individual's own lawful use or the preparation, compounding, packaging or labeling of a controlled substance:

(A) By a practitioner or the practitioner's agent pursuant to a lawful order of a practitioner as an incident to the practitioner's administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of the practitioner's professional practice; or

(B) by a practitioner or by the practitioner's authorized agent under such practitioner's supervision for the purpose of or as an incident to research, teaching or chemical analysis or by a pharmacist or medical care facility as an incident to dispensing of a controlled substance; or

(2) the addition of diluents or adulterants, including, but not limited to, quinine hydrochloride, mannitol, mannite, dextrose or lactose that are intended for use in cutting a controlled substance.

(k) "Marijuana" means all parts of all varieties of the plant Cannabis whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, the resin extracted from any part of the plant and every compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture or preparation of the plant, its seeds or resin. "Marijuana" does not include:

(1) The mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture or preparation of the mature stalks, except the resin extracted therefrom, fiber, oil or cake or the sterilized seed of the plant that is incapable of germination;

(2) any substance listed in schedules II through V of the uniform controlled substances act;

(3) drug products approved by the United States food and drug administration as of the effective date of this act;

(4) cannabidiol (other trade name: 2-[(3-methyl-6-(1-methylethenyl)-2-cyclohexen-1-yl]-5-pentyl-1,3-benzenediol); or

(5) industrial hemp as defined in K.S.A. 2-3901, and amendments thereto, when cultivated, produced, possessed or used for activities authorized by the commercial industrial hemp act.

(l) "Minor" means a person under 18 years of age.

(m) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin or independently by means of chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(1) Opium and opiate and any salt, compound, derivative or preparation of opium or opiate;

(2) any salt, compound, isomer, derivative or preparation thereof that is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in paragraph (1) but not including the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;

(4) coca leaves and any salt, compound, derivative or preparation of coca leaves and any salt, compound, isomer, derivative or preparation thereof that is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, but not including decocainized coca leaves or extractions of coca leaves that do not contain cocaine or ecgonine.

(n) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability. "Opiate" does not include, unless specifically designated as controlled under K.S.A. 65-4102, and amendments thereto, the dextrorotatory isomer of 3-methoxy-n-methylmorphinan and its salts (dextromethorphan). "Opiate" does include its racemic and levorotatory forms.

(o) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum l. except its seeds.

(p) "Person" means an individual, corporation, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, association or any other legal entity.

(q) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.

(r) "School property" means property upon which is located a structure used by a unified school district or an accredited nonpublic school for student instruction or attendance or extracurricular activities of pupils enrolled in kindergarten or any of the grades one through 12. This definition shall not be construed as requiring that school be in session or that classes are actually being held at the time of the offense or that children must be present within the structure or on the property during the time of any alleged criminal act. If the structure or property meets the above definition, the actual use of that structure or property at the time alleged shall not be a defense to the crime charged or the sentence imposed.

(s) "Simulated controlled substance" means any product that identifies itself by a common name or slang term associated with a controlled substance and that indicates on its label or accompanying promotional material that the product simulates the effect of a controlled substance.

Sec. 2. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 65-4105 is hereby amended to read as follows: 65-4105. (a) The controlled substances listed in this section are included in schedule I and the number set forth opposite each drug or substance is the DEA controlled substances code that has been assigned to it.

(b) Any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetyl fentanyl
(N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide) 9821

(2) Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl (N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide) 9815

(3) Acetylmethadol 9601

(4) Acryl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacrylamide;

acryloylfentanyl) 9811

(5)(2) AH-7921 (3,4-dichloro-N-[(1-dimethylamino)cyclohexylmethyl]benzamide) 9551

(6)(3) Allylprodine 9602

(7)(4) Alphacetylmethadol 9603
(except levo-alphacetylmethadol also known as levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate or LAAM)

(8)(5) Alphameprodine 9604

(9)(6) Alphamethadol 9605

(10) Alpha′-methyl butyryl fentanyl (2-methyl-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbutanamide) 9864

(11) Alpha-methylfentanyl (N-[1-(alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl] propionanilide; 1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-propanilido) piperidine) 9814

(12) Alpha-methylthiofentanyl (N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide) 9832

(13)(7) Benzethidine 9606

(14)(8) Betacetylmethadol 9607

(15) Beta-hydroxyfentanyl (N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide) 9830

(16) Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl (other name: N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide) 9831

(17) Beta-hydroxythiofentanyl (N-[1-[2-hydroxy-2-(thiophen-2-yl)ethyl]piperidin-4-yl]-N-phenylpropionamide) 9836

(18)(9) Betameprodine 9608

(19)(10) Betamethadol 9609

(20) Beta-methyl fentanyl (N-phenyl-N-(1-(2-phenylpropyl)piperidin-4-yl)propionamide; also known as β-methyl fentanyl) 9856

(21) Beta'-phenyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N, 3-diphenylpropanamide; also known as β'-phenyl fentanyl; 3-phenylpropanoyl fentanyl) 9842

(22)(11) Betaprodine 9611

(23)(12) Brorphine (1-(1-(1-(4-bromophenyl)ethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-1,3-dihydro-2H-benzo[d]imidazol-2-one) 9098

(24)(13) Butonitazene (2-(2-(4-butoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1 H -benzimidazol-1-yl)- N,N -diethylethan-1-amine) 9751

Butyryl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbutyramide) 9822

(25)(14) Clonitazene 9612

(26) Crotonyl fentanyl ((E)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbut-2-enamide) 9844

(27) Cyclopentyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopentanecarboxamide) 9847

(28) Cyclopropyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopropanecarboxamide) 9845

(29)(15) Dextromoramide 9613

(30)(16) Diampromide 9615

(31)(17) Diethylthiambutene 9616

(32)(18) Difenoxin 9168

(33)(19) Dimenoxadol 9617

(34)(20) Dimepheptanol 9618

(35) 2′,5′-Dimethoxyfentanyl (N-(1-(2,5-dimethoxyphenethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylpropionamide) 9861

(36)(21) Dimethylthiambutene 9619

(37)(22) Dioxaphetyl butyrate 9621

(38)(23) Dipipanone 9622

(39)(24) 2-(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-1 H -benzimidazol-1-yl)- N,N -diethylethan-1-amine (Other names: etodesnitazene; etazene) 9765

(25) 2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(piperidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1 H -benzimidazole (Other names: N -piperidinyl etonitazene; etonitazepipne) 9761

(26) 2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1 H -benzimidazole (Other names: N -pyrrolidino etonitazene; etonitazepyne) 9758

(27) Ethylmethylthiambutene 9623

(40)(28) Etonitazene 9624

(41)(29) Etoxeridine 9625

(42) Fentanyl carbamate (ethyl (1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)(phenyl)carbamate) 9851

(43) 2′-Fluoro ortho-fluorofentanyl (N-(1-(2-fluorophenethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-N-(2-fluorophenyl)propionamide; also known as 2′-fluoro 2-fluorofentanyl) 9855

(44)(30) Flunitazene ( N,N -diethyl-2-(2-(4-fluorobenzyl)-5-nitro-1 H -benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine) 9756

Furanyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylfuran-2-carboxamide) 9834

(45) 3-Furanyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylfuran-3-

carboxamide) 9860

(46)(31) Furethidine 9626

(47)(32) 7-hydroxymitragynine (7-OH)

(33) Hydroxypethidine 9627

(48) Isobutyryl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylisobutyramide) 9827

(49)(34) Isotonitazene (N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4 isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine; N,N-diethyl-2-[[4-(1-methylethoxy)phenyl]methyl]-5-nitro-1 H-benzimidazole-1-ethanamine) 9614

(50) Isovaleryl fentanyl (3-methyl- N -(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-
N-phenylbutanamide) 9862

(51)(35) Ketobemidone 9628

(52)(36) Levomoramide 9629

(53)(37) Levophenacylmorphan 9631

(54) Meta -Fluorofentanyl (N -(3-fluorophenyl)- N -(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide) 9857

(55) Meta -Fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl ( N -(3-fluorophenyl)- N -(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide) 9858

(56) Methoxyacetyl fentanyl (2-methoxy-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide) 9825

(57)(38) 2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1 H -benzimidazole (Other names: N -pyrrolidino metonitazene; metonitazepyne) 9762

(39) 2-Methyl AP-237 (1-(2-methyl-4-(3-phenylprop-2-en-1-yl)piperazin-1-yl)

butan-1-one) 9664

4′-Methyl acetyl fentanyl (N-(1-(4-methylphenethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide) 9819

(58) 3-Methylfentanyl (N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl]-N-

phenylpropanamide) 9813

(59) 3-Methylthiofentanyl (N-[(3-methyl-1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide) 9833

(60)(40) Metodesnitazene ( N,N -diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-1 H -benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine) 9764

(41) Metonitazene (N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine) 9757

(61)(42) Morpheridine 9632

(62)(43) MPPP (1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine) 9661

(63)(44) MT-45 (1-cychohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)piperazine) 9560

(64)(45) N- ethyl-2-(2-(4-isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1 H -benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine (Other name: N -desethyl isotonitazene) 9760

(46) N,N -diethyl-2-(5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1 H -benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine (Other name: protonitazene) 9759

(47) 5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1 H -benzimidazole (Other names: N -pyrrolidino protonitazene; protonitazepyne) 9763

(48) Noracymethadol 9633

(65)(49) Norlevorphanol 9634

(66)(50) Normethadone 9635

(67)(51) Norpipanone 9636

(68) Ocfentanil (N-(2-fluorophenyl)-2-methoxy-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)

acetamide) 9838

(69)(52) O-desmethyltramadol (Some trade or other names: 2-((dimethylamino)methyl-1-(3-hydroxyphenyl)cyclohexanol;3-(2-((dimethylamino)methyl)-1-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol)

(70) Ortho-fluoroacryl fentanyl (N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acrylamide) 9852

(71) Ortho-fluorobutyryl fentanyl (N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide; also known as 2-fluorobutyryl fentanyl) 9846

(72) Ortho-fluorofentanyl (N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide; 2-fluorofentanyl) 9816

(73) Ortho -Fluorofuranyl fentanyl ( N -(2-fluorophenyl)- N -(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide) 9863

(74) (Ortho-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl (N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide) 9853

(75) Ortho-methyl acetylfentanyl (N-(2-methylphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acetamide; also known as 2-methyl acetylfentanyl) 9848

(76) Ortho-methyl methoxyacetyl fentanyl (2-methoxy-N-(2-methylphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acetamide; also known as 2-methyl methoxyacetyl

fentanyl) 9820

(77) Para-chloroisobutyryl fentanyl (N-(4-chlorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide) 9826

(78) Para-fluorobutyryl fentanyl (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide) 9823

(79) Para-fluorofentanyl (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]propanamide) 9812

(80) Para-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide, 4-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl) 9824

(81) Para-fluoro furanyl fentanyl (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide) 9854

(82) Para-methoxybutyryl fentanyl (N-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide) 9837

(83) Para -Methoxyfuranyl fentanyl ( N -(4-methoxyphenyl)- N -(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide 9859

(84) para -Methylcyclopropyl fentanyl ( N -(4-methylphenyl)- N -(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)cyclopropanecarboxamide) 9865

(85) Para-methylfentanyl (N-(4-methylphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide; also known as 4-methylfentanyl) 9817

(86)(53) PEPAP (1-(-2-phenethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine) 9663

(87)(54) Phenadoxone 9637

(88)(55) Phenampromide 9638

(89)(56) Phenomorphan 9647

(90)(57) Phenoperidine 9641

(91) Phenyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbenzamide; also known as benzoyl fentanyl) 9841

(92)(58) Piritramide 9642

(93)(59) Proheptazine 9643

(94)(60) Properidine 9644

(95)(61) Propiram 9649

(96)(62) Racemoramide 9645

(97) Tetrahydrofuranyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenyltetrahydrofuran-2-carboxamide) 9843

(98) Thiofentanyl (N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide) 9835

(99) Thiofuranyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylthiophene-2-carboxamide; also known as 2-thiofuranyl fentanyl; thiophene fentanyl) 9839

(100)(63) Tilidine 9750

(101)(64) Trimeperidine 9646

(102)(65) U-47700 (3,4-dichloro-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-

methylbenzamide) 9547

(103) Valeryl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylpentanamide) 9840

(104)(66) Zipeprol (1-methoxy-3-[4-(2-methoxy-2-phenylethyl)piperazin-1-yl]-1-
phenylpropan-2-ol) 9873

(c) Any of the following opium derivatives, their salts, isomers and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetorphine 9319

(2) Acetyldihydrocodeine 9051

(3) Benzylmorphine 9052

(4) Codeine methylbromide 9070

(5) Codeine-N-Oxide 9053

(6) Cyprenorphine 9054

(7) Desomorphine 9055

(8) Dihydromorphine 9145

(9) Drotebanol 9335

(10) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt) 9056

(11) Heroin 9200

(12) Hydromorphinol 9301

(13) Methyldesorphine 9302

(14) Methyldihydromorphine 9304

(15) Morphine methylbromide 9305

(16) Morphine methylsulfonate 9306

(17) Morphine-N-Oxide 9307

(18) Myrophine 9308

(19) Nicocodeine 9309

(20) Nicomorphine 9312

(21) Normorphine 9313

(22) Pholcodine 9314

(23) Thebacon 9315

(d) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, their salts, isomers and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Alpha-ethyltryptamine 7249
Some trade or other names: etryptamine; Monase; α-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-(2-aminobutyl) indole; α-ET; and AET.

(2) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine 7391
Some trade or other names: 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; 4-bromo-2,5-DMA.

(3) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine 7396
Some trade or other names: 2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methyl-phenethylamine; 2,5-DMA.

(4) 4-methoxyamphetamine 7411
Some trade or other names: 4-methoxy-alpha-methylphene-thylamine; paramethoxyamphetamine; PMA.

(5) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine 7401

(6) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine 7395
Some trade or other names: 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; "DOM"; and "STP".

(7) 3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine 7400

(8) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) 7405

(9) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (also known as N-ethyl-alpha-methyl-3,4 (methylenedioxy) phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, and MDEA) 7404

(10) N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine (also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-3,4-(methylenedioxy) phenethylamine, and N-hydroxy MDA) 7402

(11) 3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine 7390

(12) Bufotenine 7433
Some trade or other names: 3-(Beta-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole; 3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol; N, N-dimethylserotonin; 5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine; mappine.

(13) Diethyltryptamine 7434
Some trade or other names: N,N-Diethyltryptamine; DET.

(14) Dimethyltryptamine 7435
Some trade or other names: DMT.

(15) Ibogaine 7260
Some trade or other names: 7-Ethyl-6,6 Beta,7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-6,9-methano-5H-pyrido[1',2':1,2]azepino[5,4-b]indole; Tabernanthe iboga

(16) Lysergic acid diethylamide 7315

(17) Marijuana 7360

(18) Mescaline 7381

(19) Parahexyl 7374
Some trade or other names: 3-Hexyl-l-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran; Synhexyl.

(20) Peyote 7415
Meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of such plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture or preparation of such plant, its seeds or extracts.

(21) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate 7482

(22) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate 7484

(23) Psilocybin 7437

(24) Psilocyn 7438
Some trade or other names: Psilocin.

(25) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine 7455
Some trade or other names: N-ethyl-1-phenyl-cyclo-hexylamine; (1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine; N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine; cyclohexamine; PCE.

(26) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine 7458
Some trade or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)-pyrrolidine; PCPy; PHP.

(27) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine 7470
Some trade or other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine; 2-thienyl analog of phencyclidine; TPCP; TCP.

(28) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl] pyrrolidine 7473
Some other names: TCPy.

(29) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine 7399
Some trade or other names: DOET.

(30) Salvia divinorum or salvinorum A; all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as salvia divinorum, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of such plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture or preparation of such plant, its seeds or extracts.

(31) Datura stramonium, commonly known as gypsum weed or jimson weed; all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as datura stramonium, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of such plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture or preparation of such plant, its seeds or extracts.

(32) 1-(3-[trifluoromethylphenyl])piperazine
Some trade or other names: TFMPP.

(33) 4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine 7392

(34) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthiophenethylamine (2C-T-7), its optical isomers, salts and salts of optical isomers 7348

(35) Alpha-methyltryptamine (other name: AMT) 7432

(36) 5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-DIPT), its isomers, salts and salts of isomers 7439

(37) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-ethylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-E) 7509

(38) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-D) 7508

(39) 2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-C) 7519

(40) 2-(4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-I) 7518

(41) 2-[4-(Ethylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (2C-T-2) 7385

(42) 2-[4-(Isopropylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]
ethanamine (2C-T-4) 7532

(43) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-H) 7517

(44) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitrophenyl)ethanamine (2C-N) 7521

(45) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-P) 7524

(46) 5–methoxy–N,N–dimethyltryptamine (5–MeO–DMT) 7431
Some trade or other names: 5–methoxy–3–[2–(dimethylamino) ethyl]indole.

(47) 2–(4–iodo–2,5–dimethoxyphenyl)–N–(2–methoxybenzyl)ethanamine 7538
Some trade or other names: 25I–NBOMe; 2C–I–NBOMe; 25I; Cimbi–5.

(48) 2–(4–chloro–2,5–dimethoxyphenyl)–N–(2–methoxybenzyl)ethanamine 7537
Some trade or other names: 25C–NBOMe; 2C–C–NBOMe; 25C; Cimbi–82.

(49) 2–(4–bromo–2,5–dimethoxyphenyl)–N–(2–methoxybenzyl)ethanamine 7536
Some trade or other names: 25B–NBOMe; 2C–B–NBOMe; 25B; Cimbi–36.

(50) 2-(2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine
Some trade or other names: 25H-NBOMe.

(51) 2-(2,5-dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine
Some trade or other names: 25D-NBOMe; 2C-D-NBOMe.

(52) 2-(2,5-dimethoxy-4-nitrophenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine
Some trade or other names: 25N-NBOMe, 2C-N-NBOMe.

(53) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1 H-pyrrolo[2,3-b]pyridine-3-carboxamide (5F-CUMYL-P7AICA) 7085

(54) 2-(ethylamino)-2-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexan-1-one (other names: methoxetamine, MXE) 7286

(55) 1-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-methylpropan-2-amine (other names: para-methoxymethamphetamine, PMMA) 1245

(e) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Etizolam 2780
Some trade or other names: (4-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-ethyl-9-methyl-6H-thieno[3,2-f][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]diazepine)

(2) Mecloqualone 2572

(3) Methaqualone 2565

(4) Gamma hydroxybutyric acid 2010

(5) 8-chloro-6-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-methyl-4H-benzo[f][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]diazepine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers

(other name: flualprazolam) 2785

(6) 6-(2-chlorophenyl)-1-methyl-8-nitro-4H-benzo[f][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]diazepine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (other name: clonazolam) 2786

(7) 8-bromo-6-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-methyl-4H-benzo[f][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]diazepine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers

(other name: flubromazolam) 2788

(8) 7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1-methyl-1,3-dihydro-2H-benzo[e][1,4]diazepin-2-one, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (other name: diclazepam) 2789

(f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers and salts of isomers:

(1) Aminorex 1585
Some other names: Aminoxaphen 2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline or 4,5-dihydro-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine

(2) Fenethylline 1503

(3) N-ethylamphetamine 1475

(4) (+)cis-4-methylaminorex ((+)cis-4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine) 1590

(5) N,N-dimethylamphetamine (also known as N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine; N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine) 1480

(6) Cathinone (some other names: 2-amino-1-phenol-1-propanone, alpha-amino propiophenone, 2-amino propiophenone and norphedrone) 1235

(7) Substituted cathinones
Any compound, except bupropion or compounds listed under a different schedule, structurally derived from 2–aminopropan–1–one by substitution at the 1-position with either phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not the compound is further modified in any of the following ways:

(A) By substitution in the ring system to any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy, haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substituents, whether or not further substituted in the ring system by one or more other univalent substituents;

(B) by substitution at the 3-position with an acyclic alkyl substituent;

(C) by substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or methoxybenzyl groups; or

(D) by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure.

(8) N-benzylpiperazine (other names: BZP, 1-benzylpiprazine) 7493

(9) Methiopropamine
(N-methyl-1-(thiophen-2-yl)propan-2-amine) 1478

(10) 4,4′-Dimethylaminorex (4,4′-DMAR; 4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-(4-methylphenyl)-2-oxazolamine; 4-methyl-5-(4-methylphenyl)-4,5-dihydro-1,3-oxazol-2-amine) 1595

(11) Amineptine (7-[(10,11-dihydro-5 H-dibenzo[a,d]cyclohepten-5-yl)
amino]heptanoic acid) 1219

(12) Mesocarb (N-phenyl-N ′-(3-(1-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1,2,3-oxadiazol-3-ium-5-yl)carbamimidate) 1227

(13) Ethylphenidate (ethyl 2-phenyl-2-(piperidin-2-yl)acetate) 1727

(g) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances:

(1) N-[1-benzyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (benzylfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts and salts of isomers

(2) N-[1-(2-thienyl)methyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (thenylfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts and salts of isomers

(3) Tianeptine, its optical isomers, salts and salts of isomers

(h) Any of the following cannabinoids, their salts, isomers and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Tetrahydrocannabinols 7370
Meaning tetrahydrocannabinols naturally contained in a plant of the genus Cannabis (cannabis plant), as well as synthetic equivalents of the substances contained in the plant, or in the resinous extractives of Cannabis, sp. and/or synthetic substances, derivatives, and their isomers with similar chemical structure and pharmacological activity such as the following: Delta 1 9 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers Delta 6 8 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers Delta 3,4 6a,10a cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and its optical isomers (Since nomenclature of these substances is not internationally standardized, compounds of these structures, regardless of numerical designation of atomic positions covered.), except tetrahydrocannabinols in any of the following:

(A) Industrial hemp, as defined in K.S.A. 2-3901, and amendments thereto;

(B) solid waste, as defined in K.S.A. 65-3402, and amendments thereto, and hazardous waste, as defined in K.S.A. 65-3430, and amendments thereto, if such waste is the result of the cultivation, production or processing of industrial hemp, as defined in K.S.A. 2-3901, and amendments thereto, and such waste contains a delta-9 tetrahydrocannabinol concentration of not more than 0.3%; or

(C) hemp products, as defined in K.S.A. 2-3901, and amendments thereto, unless otherwise deemed unlawful pursuant to K.S.A. 2-3908, and amendments thereto.

For the purposes of this subsection, the dibenzopyran system is the numbering convention used to identify the carbon atoms of the chemical structure.

(2) Naphthylmethylindoles
Any compound containing a 1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole group by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted on the indole group to any extent and whether or not substituted on the benzyl or naphthyl ring to any extent.

(3) Naphthoylpyrroles
Any compound containing a 3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the pyrrole group by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted on the pyrrole group to any extent, whether or not substituted on the benzyl or naphthyl ring to any extent.

(4) Naphthylmethylindenes
Any compound containing a naphthylmethylindene structure with substitution at the 3-position of the indene group by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted on the indene group to any extent, whether or not substituted on the benzyl or naphthyl ring to any extent.

(5) Cyclohexylphenols
Any compound containing a 2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol structure with substitution at the 5-position of the phenolic ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not substituted on the cyclohexyl ring to any extent.

(6) 2,3-Dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4-morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-de]-1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl]-1-napthalenylmethanone.
Some trade or other names: WIN 55,212-2.

(7) 9-(hydroxymethyl)-6, 6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol
Some trade or other names: HU-210, HU-211.

(8) Indole-3-carboxylate esters
Any compound containing a 1H-indole-3-carboxylate ester structure with the ester oxygen bearing a naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl or adamantyl group and substitution at the 1 position of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted on the naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl or benzyl groups to any extent.

(9) Indazole-3-carboxamides
Any compound containing a 1H-indazole-3-carboxamide structure with substitution at the nitrogen of the carboxamide by a naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl, benzyl, 1-amino-1-oxoalkan-2-yl or 1-alkoxy-1-oxoalkan-2-yl group and substitution at the 1 position of the indazole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted on the naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl, 1-amino-1-oxoalkan-2-yl, 1-alkoxy-1-oxoalkan-2-yl or benzyl groups to any extent.

(10) Indole-3-carboxamides
Any compound containing a 1H-indole-3-carboxamide structure with substitution at the nitrogen of the carboxamide by a naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl, benzyl, 1-amino-1-oxoalkan-2-yl or 1-alkoxy-1-oxoalkan-2-yl group and substitution at the 1 position of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent and whether or not further substituted on the naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl, 1-amino-1-oxoalkan-2-yl, 1-alkoxy-1-oxoalkan-2-yl or benzyl groups to any extent.

(11) (1H-indazol-3-yl)methanones
Any compound containing a (1H-indazol-3-yl)methanone structure with the carbonyl carbon bearing a naphthyl group and substitution at the 1 position of the indazole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted on the naphthyl or benzyl groups to any extent.

(12) (1H-indol-3-yl)methanones
Any compound containing a (1H-indol-3-yl)methanone structure with the carbonyl carbon bearing a naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl, phenyl, benzyl or tetramethylcyclopropyl group and substitution at the 1 position of the indole ring by an alkyl,haloalkyl, cyanoalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, benzyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)methyl, 1-(N-methyl-3-morpholinyl)methyl, or tetrahydropyranylmethyl group, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted on the naphthyl, quinolinyl, isoquinolinyl, adamantyl, phenyl, benzyl or tetramethylcyclopropyl groups to any extent.

(13) Hexahydrocannabinol (HHC)

(14) 5-Pentyl-2-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)pyrido[4,3-b]indol-1-one, its optical and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Some trade or ther names: CUMYL–PEGACLONE; SGT–151) 7093

(i) (1) Unless specifically exempted or unless listed in schedules II through V of the uniform controlled substances act, any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of a fentanyl-related substance or that contains the salts, isomers and salts of isomers of a fentanyl-related substance whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

(2) "Fentanyl-related substance" means any substance that is structurally related to fentanyl by one or more of the following modifications:

(A) Replacement of the phenyl portion of the phenethyl group by any monocycle, whether or not further substituted in or on the monocycle;

(B) substitution in or on the phenethyl group (or replacement as described in sub-paragraph (A)) with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino or nitro groups;

(C) substitution in or on the piperidine ring with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, ester, ether, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino or nitro groups;

(D) replacement of the aniline ring with any aromatic monocycle whether or not further substituted in or on the aromatic monocycle; or

(E) replacement of the N-propionyl group by another acyl group.

Sec. 3. K.S.A. 65-4109 is hereby amended to read as follows: 65-4109. (a) The controlled substances listed in this section are included in schedule III and the number set forth opposite each drug or substance is the DEA controlled substances code which has been assigned to it.

(b) Unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a potential for abuse associated with a depressant effect on the central nervous system:

(1) Any compound, mixture or preparation containing:

(A) Amobarbital 2126

(B) Secobarbital 2316

(C) Pentobarbital 2271
or any salt thereof and one or more other active medicinal ingredients which are not listed in any schedule.

(2) Any suppository dosage form containing:

(A) Amobarbital 2126

(B) Secobarbital 2316

(C) Pentobarbital 2271
or any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the Food and Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository.

(3) Any substance which contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid, or any salt of a derivative of barbituric acid, except those substances which are specifically listed in other schedules 2100

(4) Chlorhexadol 2510

(5) Lysergic acid 7300

(6) Lysergic acid amide 7310

(7) Methyprylon 2575

(8) Sulfondiethylmethane 2600

(9) Sulfonethylmethane 2605

(10) Sulfonmethane 2610

(11) Tiletamine and zolazepam or any salt thereof 7295
Some trade or other names for a tiletamine-zolazepam combination product: Telazol
Some trade or other names for tiletamine: 2-(ethylamino)-2-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexanone
Some trade or other names for zolazepam: 4-(2-fluorophenyl)-6,8-dihydro-1,3,8-trimethylpyrazolo-[3,4-e][1,4]-diazepin-7(1H)-one, flupyrazapon

(12) Ketamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers 7285
Some other names for ketamine: (±)-2-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)-cyclohexanone

(13) Gamma hydroxybutyric acid, any salt, hydroxybutyric compound, derivative or preparation of gamma hydroxybutyric acid contained in a drug product for which an application has been approved under section 505 of the federal food, drug and cosmetic act

(14) Embutramide 2020

(15) Perampanel, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers 2261
Some other names for perampanel: 2-(2-oxo-1-phenyl-5-pyridin-2-yl-1,2 dihydropyridin-3-yl) benzonitrile

(c) Nalorphine 9400

(d) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs or any salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below:

(1) Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine or any of its salts per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium 9803

(2) not more than 1.8 grams of codeine or any of its salts per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts 9804

(3) not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine or any of its salts per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts 9807

(4) not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine or any of its salts per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts 9808

(5) not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams or not more than 25 milligrams per dosage unit with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts 9809

(6) not more than 50 milligrams of morphine or any of its salts per 100 milliliters or per
100 grams with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts 9810

(7) any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs or their salts, as set forth below:

(A) Buprenorphine 9064

(e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical, position or geometric) and salts of such isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Those compounds, mixtures or preparations in dosage unit form containing any stimulant substance listed in schedule II, which compounds, mixtures or preparations were listed on August 25, 1971, as excepted compounds under section 308.32 of title 21 of the code of federal regulations, and any other drug of the quantitive composition shown in that list for those drugs or which is the same, except that it contains a lesser quantity of controlled substances 1405

(2) Benzphetamine 1228

(3) Chlorphentermine 1645

(4) Chlortermine 1647

(5) Phendimetrazine 1615

(f) Anabolic steroids 4000

"Anabolic steroid" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, and corticosteroids) that promotes muscle growth, and includes:

(1) 3β,17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane

(2) 3α,17β-dihydroxy-5a-androstane

(3) 5α-androstan-3,17-dione

(4) 1-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxy-5α-androst-1-ene)

(5) 1-androstenediol (3α,17β-dihydroxy-5α-androst-1-ene)

(6) 4-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene)

(7) 5-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene)

(8) 1-androstenedione ([5α]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione)

(9) 4-androstenedione (androst-4-en-3,17-dione)

(10) 5-androstenedione (androst-5-en-3,17-dione)

(11) bolasterone (7α,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one)

(12) boldenone (17β-hydroxyandrost-1,4-diene-3-one)

(13) boldione (androsta-1,4-diene-3,17-dione)

(14) calusterone (7β,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one)

(15) clostebol (4-chloro-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one)

(16) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-17β-hydroxy-17α-methyl-androst-1,4-dien-3-one)

(17) desoxymethyltestosterone (17α-methyl-5α-androst-2-en-17β-ol) (also known as "madol")

(18) Δ1-dihydrotestosterone (17β-hydroxy-5α-androst-1-en-3-one) (also known as "1-testosterone")

(19) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17β-hydroxy-androstan-3-one)

(20) drostanolone (17β-hydroxy-2α-methyl-5α-androstan-3-one)

(21) ethylestrenol (17α-ethyl-17β-hydroxyestr-4-ene)

(22) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17α-methyl-11β,17β-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one)

(23) formebolone (2-formyl-17α-methyl-11α,17β-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one)

(24) furazabol (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan)

(25) 13β-ethyl-17β-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one

(26) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17β-dihydroxy-androst-4-en-3-one)

(27) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17β-dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one)

(28) mestanolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one)

(29) mesterolone (1α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-[5α]-androstan-3-one)

(30) methandienone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one)

(31) methandriol (17α-methyl-3β,17β-dihydroxyandrost-5-ene)

(32) methasterone (2α,17α-dimethyl-5α-androstan-17β-ol-3-one)

(33) methenolone (1-methyl-17β-hydroxy-5α-androst-1-en-3-one)

(34) 17α-methyl-3β,17β-dihydroxy-5a-androstane

(35) 17α-methyl-3α,17β-dihydroxy-5a-androstane

(36) 17α-methyl-3β,17β-dihydroxyandrost-4-ene

(37) 17α-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17α-methyl-4-hydroxy-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one)

(38) methyldienolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one)

(39) methyltrienolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyestra-4,9,11-trien-3-one)

(40) methyltestosterone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one)

(41) mibolerone (7α,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one)

(42) 17α-methyl-Δ1-dihydrotestosterone (17β-hydroxy-17α-methyl-5α-androst-1-en-3-one) (also known as "17-α-methyl-1-testosterone")

(43) nandrolone (17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one)

(44) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3β, 17β-dihydroxyestr-4-ene)

(45) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3α, 17β-dihydroxyestr-4-ene)

(46) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3β, 17β-dihydroxyestr-5-ene)

(47) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3α, 17β-dihydroxyestr-5-ene)

(48) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione)

(49) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-en-3,17-dione)

(50) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-en-3,17-dione)

(51) norbolethone (13β, 17α-diethyl-17β-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one)

(52) norclostebol (4-chloro-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one)

(53) norethandrolone (17α-ethyl-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one)

(54) normethandrolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one)

(55) oxandrolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-2-oxa-[5α]-androstan-3-one)

(56) oxymesterone (17α-methyl-4,17β-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one)

(57) oxymetholone (17α-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-17β-hydroxy-[5α]-androstan-3-one)

(58) prostanozol (17β-hydroxy-5α-androstano[3,2-c]pyrazole)

(59) stanozolol (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-[5α]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole)

(60) stenbolone (17β-hydroxy-2-methyl-[5α]-androst-1-en-3-one)

(61) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic acid lactone)

(62) testosterone (17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one)

(63) tetrahydrogestrinone (13β, 17α-diethyl-17β-hydroxygon-4,9,11-trien-3-one)

(64) trenbolone (17β-hydroxyestr-4,9,11-trien-3-one)

(65) 5α-androstan-3,6,17-trione;

(66) 6-bromo-androsta-1,4-diene-3,17-dione;

(67) 6-bromo-androstan-3,17-dione;

(68) 4-chloro-17α-methyl-androsta-1,4-diene-3,17β-diol;

(69) 4-chloro-17α-methyl-androst-4-ene-3β,17β-diol;

(70) 4-chloro-17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-androst-4-en-3-one;

(71) 4-chloro-17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-androst-4-ene-3,11-dione;

(72) 2α,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxy-5β-androstan-3-one;

(73) 2α,3α-epithio-17α-methyl-5α-androstan-17β-ol;

(74) estra-4,9,11-triene-3,17-dione;

(75) [3,2-c]furazan-5α-androstan-17β-ol;

(76) 18a-homo-3-hydroxy-estra-2,5(10)-dien-17-one;

(77) 4-hydroxy-androst-4-ene-3,17-dione;

(78) 17β-hydroxy-androstano[2,3-d]isoxazole;

(79) 17β-hydroxy-androstano[3,2-c]isoxazole;

(80) 3β-hydroxy-estra-4,9,11-triene-17-one;

(81) 17α-methyl-androsta-1,4-diene-3,17β-diol;

(82) 17α-methyl-5α-androstan-17β-ol;

(83) 17α-methyl-androstan-3-hydroxyimine-17β-ol;

(84) 6α-methyl-androst-4-ene-3,17-dione;

(85) 17α-methyl-androst-2-ene-3,17β-diol;

(86) [3,2-c]pyrazole-androst-4-en-17β-ol;

(87) any salt, ester, or isomer of a drug or substance described or listed in this paragraph, if that salt, ester, or isomer promotes muscle growth.

(A) Except as provided in (B), such term does not include an anabolic steroid which is expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species and which has been approved by the United States' secretary of health and human services for such administration.

(B) If any person prescribes, dispenses or distributes such steroid for human use, such person shall be considered to have prescribed, dispensed or distributed an anabolic steroid within the meaning of this subsection (f).

(g) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substance, its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a United States food and drug administration approved product 7369
Some other names for dronabinol: (6aR-trans)-6a,7,8,10a-tetrahydro-6-6-9-trimethyl-3-pentyl-6H-dibenzo(b,d)pyran-1-0l, or (-)-delta-9-(trans)-tetrahydrocannabinol.

(h) The board may except by rule any compound, mixture or preparation containing any stimulant or depressant substance listed in subsection (b) from the application of all or any part of this act if the compound, mixture or preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system and if the admixtures are included therein in combinations, quantity, proportion or concentration that vitiate the potential for abuse of the substances which have a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system.

Sec. 4. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 65-4111 is hereby amended to read as follows: 65-4111. (a) The controlled substances listed in this section are included in schedule IV and the number set forth opposite each drug or substance is the DEA controlled substances code that has been assigned to it.

(b) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances including its salts, isomers and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation and having a potential for abuse associated with a depressant effect on the central nervous system:

(1) Alprazolam 2882

(2) Barbital 2145

(3) Brexanolone 2400

(4) Bromazepam 2748

(5) Camazepam 2749

(6) Carisoprodol 8192

(7) Chloral betaine 2460

(8) Chloral hydrate 2465

(9) Chlordiazepoxide 2744

(10) Clobazam 2751

(11) Clonazepam 2737

(12) Clorazepate 2768

(13) Clotiazepam 2752

(14) Cloxazolam 2753

(15) Daridorexant 2410

(16) Delorazepam 2754

(17) Diazepam 2765

(18) Dichloralphenazone 2467

(19) Estazolam 2756

(20) Ethchlorvynol 2540

(21) Ethinamate 2545

(22) Ethyl loflazepate 2758

(23) Fludiazepam 2759

(24) Flunitrazepam 2763

(25) Flurazepam 2767

(26) Fospropofol 2138

(27) Halazepam 2762

(28) Haloxazolam 2771

(29) Ketazolam 2772

(30) Lemborexant 2245

(31) Loprazolam 2773

(32) Lorazepam 2885

(33) Lormetazepam 2774

(34) Mebutamate 2800

(35) Medazepam 2836

(36) Meprobamate 2820

(37) Methohexital 2264

(38) Methylphenobarbital (mephobarbital) 2250

(39) Midazolam 2884

(40) Nimetazepam 2837

(41) Nitrazepam 2834

(42) Nordiazepam 2838

(43) Oxazepam 2835

(44) Oxazolam 2839

(45) Paraldehyde 2585

(46) Petrichloral 2591

(47) Phenobarbital 2285

(48) Pinazepam 2883

(49) Prazepam 2764

(50) Quazepam 2881

(51) Remimazolam 2846

(52) Temazepam 2925

(53) Tetrazepam 2886

(54) Triazolam 2887

(55) Zolpidem 2783

(56) Zaleplon 2781

(57) Zopiclone 2784

(58) Alfaxalone. 2731

(59) Suvorexant 2223

(60) Zuranolone 2420

(c) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of lorcaserin (1625), including its salts, isomers and salts of such isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible (21 U.S.C. § 812; 21 C.F.R. § 1308.14).

(d) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical, position or geometric) and salts of such isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Cathine ((+)-norpseudoephedrine) 1230

(2) Diethylpropion 1610

(3) Fencamfamin 1760

(4) Fenproporex 1575

(5) Mazindol 1605

(6) Mefenorex 1580

(7) Pemoline (including organometallic complexes and chelates thereof) 1530

(8) Phentermine 1640

The provisions of subsection (d)(8) shall expire on the date phentermine and its salts and isomers are removed from schedule IV of the federal controlled substances act (21 U.S.C. § 812; 21 C.F.R. § 1308.14).

(9) Pipradrol 1750

(10) Serdexmethylphenidate 1729

(11) SPA((-)-1-dimethylamino-1, 2-diphenylethane) 1635

(12) Sibutramine 1675

(13) Solriamfetol (2-amino-3-phenylpropyl carbamate; benzenepropanol, beta-amino-, carbamate (ester)) 1650

(14) MondafinilModafinil 1680

(e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture or preparation that contains any quantity of the following, including salts thereof:

(1) Pentazocine 9709

(2) Butorphanol (including its optical isomers) 9720

(3) Eluxadoline (5-[[[(2S)-2-amino-3-[4-aminocarbonyl)-2,6-dimethylphenyl]-1-oxopropyl][(1S)-1-(4-phenyl-1H-imidazol-2-yl)ethyl]amino]methyl]-2-methoxybenzoic acid) (including its optical isomers) and its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers 9725

(f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below:

(1) Not more than 1 milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit 9167

(2) Dextropropoxyphene (alpha-(+)-4-dimethylamino-1, 2-diphenyl-3-methyl-2-propion-oxybutane) 9278

(3) 2-[(dimethylamino)methyl]-1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexanol, its salts, optical and geometric isomers and salts of these isomers (including tramadol) 9752

(g) Butyl nitrite and its salts, isomers, esters, ethers or their salts.

(h) The board may except by rule and regulation any compound, mixture or preparation containing any depressant substance listed in subsection (b) from the application of all or any part of this act if the compound, mixture or preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the admixtures are included therein in combinations, quantity, proportion or concentration that vitiate the potential for abuse of the substances that have a depressant effect on the central nervous system.

Sec. 5 K.S.A. 65-4109 and K.S.A 2025 Supp. 21-5701, 65-4105 and 65-4111";

And by renumbering sections accordingly;

On page 1, in the title, in line 1, by striking all after "concerning"; by striking all in lines 2 through 6; in line 7, by striking all before "and" and inserting "controlled substances; adding and removing certain substances in schedule I, III and IV of the uniform controlled substances act; making conforming changes to the criminal code definition of fentanyl-related controlled substances; amending K.S.A. 65-4109 and K.S.A. 21-5701, 65-4105 and 65-4111";

And your committee on conference recommends the adoption of this report.

Beverly Gossage

William Clifford

Conferees on part of Senate

Will Carpenter

Ron Bryce

Conferees on part of House

CONFERENCE COMMITTEE REPORT

MR. SPEAKER and MR. PRESIDENT: Your committee on conference on Senate amendments to HB 2509 submits the following report:

The House accedes to all Senate amendments to the bill, and your committee on conference further agrees to amend the bill as printed with Senate Committee amendments, as follows:

On page 1, following line 10, by inserting:

"New Section 1. (a) For the purposes of this section, "point-of-care testing" means laboratory-based capillary assays. "Point-of-care testing" does not include point-of-care ultrasound or other imaging modalities and venipuncture or other procedures requiring vascular access beyond the use of a fingerstick or other capillary methods.

(b) Physical therapists may perform point-of-care laboratory testing limited to assays classified by the centers for medicare and medicaid services as CLIA-waived tests. Permitted tests include lactate and blood glucose if used for the purpose of obtaining information related to muscle metabolism, exercise tolerance or rehabilitation status. Such testing shall not include the diagnostic use of point-of-care testing for medical conditions outside the scope of physical therapy practice.

(c) A physical therapist or the facility where testing is performed shall obtain and maintain a CLIA certificate of waiver in accordance with federal law. Testing shall be performed only in accordance with manufacturer instructions, including training requirements for staff performing such tests.

(d) Results of point-of-care testing shall be used as adjunct information to support physical therapy evaluation and treatment planning or to comply with a physician's order.

(e) Point-of-care laboratory testing by physical therapists shall not be construed as granting independent authority to diagnose medical conditions.

(f) Physical therapists shall not bill third-party payers for point-of-care laboratory testing as stand-alone reimbursable services. Nothing in this section shall prohibit a physical therapist or facility from charging a patient for the reasonable cost of testing supplies used in connection with such testing.

(g) A physical therapist shall not perform point-of-care testing unless a patient or the patient's representative provides written consent. Written consent shall include:

(1) Disclosure of costs to the patient or the patient's representative; and

(2) an acknowledgment of financial responsibility from the patient or the patient's representative.";

And by renumbering sections accordingly;

On page 1, in the title, in line 1, by striking the first "healthcare" and inserting "health professions"; in line 1, after the semicolon by inserting "relating to physical therapists; allowing licensed physical therapists to perform certain capillary blood tests;";

And your committee on conference recommends the adoption of this report.

Beverly Gossage

William Clifford

Cindy Holscher

Conferees on part of Senate

Will Carpenter

Ron Bryce

Susan Ruiz

Conferees on part of House

CONFERENCE COMMITTEE REPORT

MR. SPEAKER and MR. PRESIDENT: Your committee on conference on Senate amendments to HB 2479 submits the following report:

The House accedes to all Senate amendments to the bill, and your committee on conference further agrees to amend the bill as printed with Senate Committee amendments, as follows:

On page 3, following line 15, by inserting:

"Sec. 2. K.S.A. 21-5301 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-5301. (a) An attempt is any overt act toward the perpetration of a crime done by a person who intends to commit such crime but fails in the perpetration thereof or is prevented or intercepted in executing such crime.

(b) It shall not be a defense to a charge of attempt that the circumstances under which the act was performed or the means employed or the act itself were such that the commission of the crime was not possible.

(c) (1) An attempt to commit an off-grid felony shall be ranked at nondrug severity level 1. An attempt to commit any other nondrug felony shall be ranked on the nondrug scale at two severity levels below the appropriate level for the underlying or completed crime. The lowest severity level for an attempt to commit a nondrug felony shall be a severity level 10.

(2) The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to a violation of attempting to commit the crime of:

(A) Aggravated human trafficking, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5426(b), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the victim is less than 14 years of age;

(B) terrorism, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5421, and amendments thereto;

(C) illegal use of weapons of mass destruction, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5422, and amendments thereto;

(D) rape, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5503(a)(3), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older;

(E) aggravated indecent liberties with a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5506(b)(3), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older;

(F) aggravated criminal sodomy, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5504(b)(1) or (2), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older;

(G) commercial sexual exploitation of a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-6422, and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the victim is less than 14 years of age;

(H) sexual exploitation of a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5510(a)(1) or (4), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the child is less than 14 years of age;

(I) aggravated internet trading in child pornography, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5514(b), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the child is less than 14 years of age; or

(J) capital murder, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5401, and amendments thereto; or

(K) breach of privacy, as defined in K.S.A. 21-6101(a)(6) or (7), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the victim is less than 14 years of age.

(d) (1) An attempt to commit a felony which that prescribes a sentence on the drug grid shall reduce the prison term prescribed in the drug grid block for an underlying or completed crime by six months.

(2) The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to a violation of attempting to commit a violation of K.S.A. 21-5703, and amendments thereto.

(e) An attempt to commit a class A person misdemeanor is a class B person misdemeanor. An attempt to commit a class A nonperson misdemeanor is a class B nonperson misdemeanor.

(f) An attempt to commit a class B or C misdemeanor is a class C misdemeanor.

Sec. 3. K.S.A. 21-5302 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-5302. (a) A conspiracy is an agreement with another person to commit a crime or to assist in committing a crime. No person may be convicted of a conspiracy unless an overt act in furtherance of such conspiracy is alleged and proved to have been committed by such person or by a co-conspirator.

(b) It is immaterial to the criminal liability of a person charged with conspiracy that any other person with whom the defendant conspired lacked the actual intent to commit the underlying crime provided that the defendant believed the other person did have the actual intent to commit the underlying crime.

(c) It shall be a defense to a charge of conspiracy that the accused voluntarily and in good faith withdrew from the conspiracy, and communicated the fact of such withdrawal to one or more of the accused person's co-conspirators, before any overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy was committed by the accused or by a co-conspirator.

(d) (1) Conspiracy to commit an off-grid felony shall be ranked at nondrug severity level 2. Conspiracy to commit any other nondrug felony shall be ranked on the nondrug scale at two severity levels below the appropriate level for the underlying or completed crime. The lowest severity level for conspiracy to commit a nondrug felony shall be a severity level 10.

(2) The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to a violation of conspiracy to commit the crime of:

(A) Aggravated human trafficking, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5426(b), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the victim is less than 14 years of age;

(B) terrorism, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5421, and amendments thereto;

(C) illegal use of weapons of mass destruction, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5422, and amendments thereto;

(D) rape, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5503(a)(3), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older;

(E) aggravated indecent liberties with a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5506(b)(3), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older;

(F) aggravated criminal sodomy, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5504(b)(1) or (2), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older;

(G) commercial sexual exploitation of a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-6422, and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the victim is less than 14 years of age;

(H) sexual exploitation of a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5510(a)(1) or (4), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the child is less than 14 years of age;

(I) aggravated internet trading in child pornography, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5514(b), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the child is less than 14 years of age; or

(J) violations of the Kansas racketeer influenced and corrupt organization act, as described in K.S.A. 21-6329, and amendments thereto; or

(K) breach of privacy, as defined in K.S.A. 21-6101(a)(6) or (7), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the victim is less than 14 years of age.

(e) Conspiracy to commit a felony which that prescribes a sentence on the drug grid shall reduce the prison term prescribed in the drug grid block for an underlying or completed crime by six months.

(f) A conspiracy to commit a misdemeanor is a class C misdemeanor.

Sec. 4. K.S.A. 21-5303 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-5303. (a) Criminal solicitation is commanding, encouraging or requesting another person to commit a felony, attempt to commit a felony or aid and abet in the commission or attempted commission of a felony for the purpose of promoting or facilitating the felony.

(b) It is immaterial under subsection (a) that the actor fails to communicate with the person solicited to commit a felony if the person's conduct was designed to effect a communication.

(c) It is an affirmative defense that the actor, after soliciting another person to commit a felony, persuaded that person not to do so or otherwise prevented the commission of the felony, under circumstances manifesting a complete and voluntary renunciation of the actor's criminal purposes.

(d) (1) Criminal solicitation to commit an off-grid felony shall be ranked at nondrug severity level 3. Criminal solicitation to commit any other nondrug felony shall be ranked on the nondrug scale at three severity levels below the appropriate level for the underlying or completed crime. The lowest severity level for criminal solicitation to commit a nondrug felony shall be a severity level 10.

(2) The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to a violation of criminal solicitation to commit the crime of:

(A) Aggravated human trafficking, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5426(b), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the victim is less than 14 years of age;

(B) terrorism, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5421, and amendments thereto;

(C) illegal use of weapons of mass destruction, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5422, and amendments thereto;

(D) rape, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5503(a)(3), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older;

(E) aggravated indecent liberties with a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5506(b)(3), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older;

(F) aggravated criminal sodomy, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5504(b)(1) or (2), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older;

(G) commercial sexual exploitation of a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-6422, and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the victim is less than 14 years of age;

(H) sexual exploitation of a child, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5510(a)(1) or (4), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the child is less than 14 years of age; or

(I) aggravated internet trading in child pornography, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5514(b), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the child is less than 14 years of age; or

(J) breach of privacy, as defined in K.S.A. 21-6101(a)(6) or (7), and amendments thereto, if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the victim is less than 14 years of age.

(e) Criminal solicitation to commit a felony which that prescribes a sentence on the drug grid shall reduce the prison term prescribed in the drug grid block for an underlying or completed crime by six months.

Sec. 5. K.S.A. 21-5428 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-5428. (a) Blackmail is intentionally gaining or attempting to gain anything of value or compelling or attempting to compel another to act against such person's will, excluding sexual contact, sexual intercourse or conduct that is of a sexual nature, by threatening to:

(1) Communicate accusations or statements about any person that would subject such person or any other person to public ridicule, contempt or degradation; or

(2) disseminate any videotape, photograph, film or image obtained in violation of K.S.A. 21-6101(a)(6) or (a)(8), and amendments thereto, video or other recording:

(A) Obtained in violation of K.S.A. 21-6101(a)(6), and amendments thereto; or

(B) of another identifiable person who is nude or engaged in sexual activity, including, but not limited to, any image, video or other recording that has been created, in whole or in part, altered or modified by artificial intelligence or any digital means to appear to depict or purport to depict such identifiable person, regardless of whether such identifiable person was involved in the creation of the original image, video or other recording.

(b) Blackmail as defined in:

(1) Subsection (a)(1) is a severity level 7, nonperson felony; and

(2) subsection (a)(2) is a severity level 4, person felony.

(c) As used in this section, "image, video or other recording" means any photograph, film, video picture, digital or computer-generated image or picture, whether made or produced by electronic, mechanical or other means.

Sec. 6. K.S.A. 21-5512 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-5512. (a) Unlawful sexual relations is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy with a person who is not married to the offender if:

(1) The offender is an employee or volunteer of the department of corrections, or the employee or volunteer of a contractor who is under contract to provide services for a correctional institution, and the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is a person 16 years of age or older who is an inmate;

(2) the offender is a parole officer, volunteer for the department of corrections or the employee or volunteer of a contractor who is under contract to provide supervision services for persons on parole, conditional release or postrelease supervision and the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is a person 16 years of age or older who is an inmate who has been released on parole, conditional release or postrelease supervision and the offender has knowledge that the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is an inmate who has been released and is currently on parole, conditional release or postrelease supervision;

(3) the offender is a law enforcement officer, an employee of a jail, or the employee of a contractor who is under contract to provide services in a jail and the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is a person 16 years of age or older who is confined to such jail;

(4) the offender is a law enforcement officer, an employee of a juvenile detention facility or sanctions house, or the employee of a contractor who is under contract to provide services in such facility or sanctions house and the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is a person 16 years of age or older who is confined to such facility or sanctions house;

(5) the offender is an employee of the department of corrections or the employee of a contractor who is under contract to provide services in a juvenile correctional facility and the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is a person 16 years of age or older who is confined to such facility;

(6) the offender is an employee of the department of corrections or the employee of a contractor who is under contract to provide direct supervision and offender control services to the department of corrections and:

(A) The person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is a person l6 years of age or older who has been:

(i) Released on conditional release from a juvenile correctional facility under the supervision and control of the department of corrections or juvenile community supervision agency; or

(ii) placed in the custody of the department of corrections under the supervision and control of the department of corrections or juvenile community supervision agency; and

(B) the offender has knowledge that the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is currently under supervision;

(7) the offender is an employee of the Kansas department for aging and disability services or the Kansas department for children and families or the employee of a contractor who is under contract to provide services in an aging and disability or children and families institution or to the Kansas department for aging and disability services or the Kansas department for children and families and the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is a person 16 years of age or older who is a patient in such institution or in the custody of the secretary for aging and disability services or the secretary for children and families;

(8) the offender is a worker, volunteer or other person in a position of authority in a family foster home licensed by the department of health and environment and the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is a person 16 years of age or older who is a foster child placed in the care of such family foster home;

(9) the offender is a teacher or other person in a position of authority for a school and the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is a person 16 years of age or older who is a student enrolled at the such school where the offender is employed. If the offender is the parent of the student, the provisions of this section shall not apply and the provisions of K.S.A. 21-5604(b), and amendments thereto, shall apply, not this subsection;

(10) the offender is a court services officer or the employee of a contractor who is under contract to provide supervision services for persons under court services supervision and the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is a person 16 years of age or older who has been placed on probation under the supervision and control of court services and the offender has knowledge that the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is currently under the supervision of court services;

(11) the offender is a community correctional services officer or the employee of a contractor who is under contract to provide supervision services for persons under community corrections supervision and the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is a person 16 years of age or older who has been assigned to a community correctional services program under the supervision and control of community corrections and the offender has knowledge that the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is currently under the supervision of community corrections;

(12) the offender is a surety or an employee of a surety and the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is a person 16 years of age or older who is the subject of a surety or bail bond agreement with such surety and the offender has knowledge that the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is the subject of a surety or bail bond agreement with such surety; or

(13) the offender is a law enforcement officer and the person with whom the offender is engaging in consensual sexual intercourse, lewd fondling or touching, or sodomy is a person 16 years of age or older who is interacting with such law enforcement officer during the course of a traffic stop, a custodial interrogation, an interview in connection with an investigation, or while the law enforcement officer has such person detained.

(b) Unlawful sexual relations as defined in:

(1) Subsection (a)(5) is a severity level 4, person felony; and

(2) subsection (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(4), (a)(6), (a)(7), (a)(8), (a)(9), (a)(10), (a)(11), (a)(12) or (a)(13) is a severity level 5, person felony.

(c) (1) If an offender violates the provisions of this section by engaging in consensual sexual intercourse which would constitute a violation of K.S.A. 21-5503, and amendments thereto, the provisions of this section shall not apply and the provisions of K.S.A. 21-5503, and amendments thereto, shall apply, not this section.

(2) If an offender violates the provisions of this section by engaging in consensual sexual intercourse which would constitute a violation of K.S.A. 21-5506(b)(1), and amendments thereto, the provisions of this section shall not apply and the provisions of K.S.A. 21-5506(b)(1), and amendments thereto, shall apply, not this section.

(3) If an offender violates the provisions of this section by engaging in sodomy which would constitute a violation of K.S.A. 21-5504(a)(3), (a)(4) or (b), and amendments thereto, the provisions of this section shall not apply and the provisions of K.S.A. 21-5504(a)(3), (a)(4) or (b), and amendments thereto, shall apply, not this section.

(4) If an offender violates the provisions of this section by engaging in lewd fondling or touching which would constitute a violation of K.S.A. 21-5506(b)(2), and amendments thereto, the provisions of this section shall not apply and the provisions of K.S.A. 21-5506(b)(2), and amendments thereto, shall apply, not this section.

(d) As used in this section:

(1) "Correctional institution" means the same as in K.S.A. 75-5202, and amendments thereto;

(2) "inmate" means the same as in K.S.A. 75-5202, and amendments thereto;

(3) "parole officer" means the same as in K.S.A. 75-5202, and amendments thereto;

(4) "postrelease supervision" means the same as in K.S.A. 21-6803, and amendments thereto;

(5) "juvenile detention facility" means the same as in K.S.A. 38-2302, and amendments thereto;

(6) "juvenile correctional facility" means the same as in K.S.A. 38-2302, and amendments thereto;

(7) "sanctions house" means the same as in K.S.A. 38-2302, and amendments thereto;

(8) "institution" means the same as in K.S.A. 76-12a01, and amendments thereto;

(9) "teacher" means and includes teachers, coaches, supervisors, principals, superintendents and any other professional employee in any public or private school offering any of grades kindergarten through 12;

(10) "Community corrections" means the entity responsible for supervising adults and juvenile offenders for confinement, detention, care or treatment, subject to conditions imposed by the court pursuant to the community corrections act, K.S.A. 75-5290, and amendments thereto, and the revised Kansas juvenile justice code, K.S.A. 38-2301 et seq., and amendments thereto;

(2) "correctional institution" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 75-5202, and amendments thereto;

(11)(3) "court services" means the entity appointed by the district court that is responsible for supervising adults and juveniles placed on probation and misdemeanants placed on parole by district courts of this state;

(4) "inmate" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 75-5202, and amendments thereto;

(5) "institution" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 76-12a01, and amendments thereto;

(12)(6) "juvenile community supervision agency" means an entity that receives grants for the purpose of providing direct supervision to juveniles in the custody of the department of corrections; and

(7) "juvenile correctional facility" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 38-2302, and amendments thereto;

(8) "juvenile detention facility" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 38-2302, and amendments thereto;

(9) "parole officer" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 75-5202, and amendments thereto;

(10) "person in a position of authority for a school" includes, but is not limited to, any person who is:

(A) Not a student enrolled at the school;

(B) delegated authority by the school to interact with students; and

(C) (i) a volunteer for the school who is 21 years of age or older;

(ii) designated or assigned through such person's employment to provide services for the school; or

(iii) a contractor or an employee of a contractor who is under contract to provide services for the school;

(11) "postrelease supervision" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 21-6803, and amendments thereto;

(12) "sanctions house" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 38-2302, and amendments thereto;

(13) "school" means any public or private school offering any of the grades kindergarten through 12;

(13)(14) "surety" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 22-2809a, and amendments thereto; and

(15) "teacher" means and includes teachers, coaches, supervisors, principals, superintendents and any other professional employee in any school.

Sec. 7. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 21-5601 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-5601. (a) Endangering a child is knowingly and unreasonably causing or permitting a child under the age of 18 years of age to be placed in a situation in which the child's life, body or health may be endangered.

(b) Aggravated endangering a child is:

(1) Recklessly causing or permitting a child under the age of 18 years of age to be placed in a situation in which the child's life, body or health is endangered;

(2) causing or permitting such child to be in an environment where the person knows or reasonably should know that any person is distributing, possessing with intent to distribute, manufacturing or attempting to manufacture any methamphetamine or any fentanyl-related controlled substance; or

(3) causing or permitting such child to be in an environment where the person knows or reasonably should know that:

(A) Drug paraphernalia or volatile, toxic or flammable chemicals are stored or used for the purpose of manufacturing or attempting to manufacture any methamphetamine; or

(B) drug paraphernalia or toxic materials, compounds or mixtures are stored or used for the purpose of manufacturing or attempting to manufacture any fentanyl-related controlled substance.

(c) (1) Endangering a child is a:

(A) Class A person misdemeanor if the child is at least six years of age but less than 18 years of age; and

(B) severity level 9, person felony if the child is less than six years of age.

(2) Except as provided in subsection (c)(3), aggravated endangering a child is a:

(A) Severity level 9, person felony except as provided in subsection (c)(2)(B) if the child is at least six years of age but less than 18 years of age; and

(B) severity level 8, person felony if the child is less than six years of age.

(3) Aggravated endangering a child when bodily harm is inflicted upon the child is a:

(A) Severity level 6, person felony when bodily harm is inflicted upon the child if the child is at least six years of age but less than 18 years of age; and

(B) severity level 5, person felony if the child is less than six years of age.

(3)(4) The sentence for a violation of aggravated endangering a child shall be served consecutively to any other term or terms of imprisonment imposed. Such sentence shall not be considered a departure and shall not be subject to appeal.

(d) Nothing in subsection (a) shall be construed to mean a child is endangered for the sole reason that the child's parent or guardian, in good faith, selects and depends upon spiritual means alone through prayer, in accordance with the tenets and practice of a recognized church or religious denomination, for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care of such child.

(e) As used in this section:

(1) "Drug paraphernalia," "fentanyl-related controlled substance" and "manufacture" mean the same as defined in K.S.A. 21-5701, and amendments thereto; and

(2) "methamphetamine" means any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(3) or (f)(1), and amendments thereto, or any analog thereof.

Sec. 8. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 21-6101 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-6101. (a) Breach of privacy is knowingly intentionally and without lawful authority:

(1) Intercepting, without the consent of the sender or receiver, a message by telephone, telegraph, letter or other means of private communication;

(2) divulging, without the consent of the sender or receiver, the existence or contents of such message if such person knows that the message was illegally intercepted, or if such person illegally learned of the message in the course of employment with an agency in transmitting such message;

(3) entering with intent to listen surreptitiously to private conversations in a private place or to observe the personal conduct of any other person or persons entitled to privacy therein;

(4) installing or using outside or inside a private place any device for hearing, recording, amplifying or broadcasting sounds originating in such place, which sounds would not ordinarily be audible or comprehensible without the use of such device, without the consent of the person or persons entitled to privacy therein;

(5) installing or using any device or equipment for the interception of any telephone, telegraph or other wire or wireless communication without the consent of the person in possession or control of the facilities for such communication;

(6) installing or using a camcorder, motion picture camera or photographic camera of any type to videotape, film, photograph or any device or software to record or view, by electronic or other means, the nude body of, or the undergarments worn by, another identifiable person under or through the clothing being worn by that other person or another identifiable person who is nude or in a state of undress, for the purpose of viewing the body of, or the undergarments worn by, that other person, without the consent or knowledge of that other person, with the intent to invade the privacy of that other person, under circumstances in which that other person has a reasonable expectation of privacy;

(7) disseminating or permitting the dissemination of any videotape, photograph, film or image, video or other recording obtained in violation of subsection (a)(6); or

(8) disseminating any videotape, photograph, film or image, video or other recording of another identifiable person 18 years of age or older who is nude or engaged in sexual activity and under circumstances in which such identifiable person had a reasonable expectation of privacy, with the intent to harass, threaten or intimidate such identifiable person, and such identifiable person did not consent to such dissemination. This includes disseminating any videotape, photograph, film or image, video or other recording that has been created, in whole or in part, altered or modified by artificial intelligence or any digital means to appear to depict or purport to depict such identifiable person, regardless of whether such identifiable person was involved in the creation of the original image, video or other recording.

(b) Breach of privacy as defined in:

(1) Subsection (a)(1) through (a)(5) is a class A nonperson misdemeanor;

(2) subsection (a)(6) or (a)(8) is a:

(A) Severity level 8, person felony, except as provided in subsection subsections (b)(2)(B), (b)(2)(C) and (b)(4); and

(B) severity level 5, person felony upon a second or subsequent conviction within the previous five years, except as provided in subsection (b)(4); and

(C) severity level 5, person felony if the victim is 14 years of age or older but less than 18 years of age;

(3) subsection (a)(7) is a severity level 5, person felony, except as provided in subsection (b)(4);

(4) subsection (a)(6) or (a)(7) or attempt, conspiracy or criminal solicitation to commit breach of privacy as defined in subsection (a)(6) or (a)(7) is an off-grid person felony if the offender is 18 years of age or older and the victim is less than 14 years of age; and

(5) subsection (a)(8) is a:

(A) Severity level 8, person felony, except as provided in subsection (b)(4)(B); and

(B) severity level 5, person felony upon a second or subsequent conviction within the previous five years.

(c) If the offender is 18 years of age or older and the victim is less than 14 years of age, the provisions of:

(1) K.S.A. 21-5301(c), and amendments thereto, shall not apply to a violation of attempting to commit the crime of breach of privacy as defined in subsection (a)(6) or (a)(7);

(2) K.S.A. 21-5302(d), and amendments thereto, shall not apply to a violation of conspiracy to commit the crime of breach of privacy as defined in subsection (a)(6) or (a)(7); and

(3) K.S.A. 21-5303(d), and amendments thereto, shall not apply to a violation of criminal solicitation to commit the crime of breach of privacy as defined in subsection (a)(6) or (a)(7).

(d) Subsection (a)(1) shall not apply to messages overheard through a regularly installed instrument on a telephone party line or on an extension.

(d)(e) The provisions of this section shall not apply to:

(1) An operator of a switchboard, or any officer, employee or agent of any public utility providing telephone communications service, whose facilities are used in the transmission of a communication, to intercept, disclose or use that communication in the normal course of employment while engaged in any activity which that is incident to the rendition of public utility service or to the protection of the rights of property of such public utility;

(2) a provider of an interactive computer service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. § 230, for content provided by another person;

(3) a radio common carrier, as defined in K.S.A. 66-1,143, and amendments thereto;

(4) a local exchange carrier or telecommunications carrier as defined in K.S.A. 66-1,187, and amendments thereto;

(5) a cable service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. § 522;

(6) a provider of direct-to-home satellite services, as defined in 47 U.S.C. § 303(v); and

(7) a multichannel video programming distributor, as defined in 47 U.S.C. § 522(13), or an affiliate thereof.

(e)(f) The provisions of subsection (a)(8) shall not apply to a person acting with a bona fide and lawful scientific, educational, governmental, news or other similar public purpose.

(f)(g) As used in this section,:

(1) "Image, video or other recording" means any photograph, film, video picture, digital or computer-generated image or picture, whether made or produced by electronic, mechanical or other means;

(2) "lawful authority" does not include any act or behavior prohibited by this section that is undertaken with the intent to arouse or satisfy the sexual desires or appeal to the prurient interest of the offender or any other person;

(3) "nude" means any state of undress in which the human genitals, pubic region, buttock or female breast, at a point below the top of the areola, is less than completely and opaquely covered; and

(4) "private place" means a place where one may reasonably expect to be safe from uninvited intrusion or surveillance.";

On page 7, in line 10, before "K.S.A" by inserting "K.S.A. 21-5301, 21-5302, 21-5303, 21-5428 and 21-5512 and"; also in line 10, after "Supp." by inserting "21-5601, 21-6101 and"; also in line 10, by striking "is" and inserting "are";

And by renumbering sections accordingly;

On page 1, in the title, in line 5, after the semicolon by inserting "modifying the culpable mental state required to commit the crime of breach of privacy and increasing the criminal penalties for certain violations of such crime and attempt, conspiracy or criminal solicitation of certain violations of such crime; modifying the elements of the crime of blackmail related to threatened dissemination of any image, video or other recording of another identifiable person who is nude or engaged in sexual activity by changing the connection to breach of privacy and describing the content of the image, video or other recording; describing who is a person in a position of authority for a school for the crime of unlawful sexual relations; increasing the penalties for the crimes of endangering a child and aggravated endangering a child if the child is less than six years of age;"; also in line 5, after "amending" by inserting "K.S.A. 21-5301, 21-5302, 21-5303, 21-5428 and 21-5512 and"; also in line 5, after "Supp." by inserting "21-5601, 21-6101 and"; in line 6, by striking "section" and inserting "sections";

And your committee on conference recommends the adoption of this report.

Kellie Warren

Kenny Titus

Ethan Corson

Conferees on part of Senate

Susan Humphries

Laura Williams

Dan Osman

Conferees on part of House

CONFERENCE COMMITTEE REPORT

MR. SPEAKER and MR. PRESIDENT: Your committee on conference on Senate amendments to HB 2521 submits the following report:

Your committee on conference agrees to disagree and recommends that a new conference committee be appointed;

And your committee on conference recommends the adoption of this report.

Kellie Warren

Kenny Titus

Conferees on part of Senate

Susan Humphries

Laura Williams

Conferees on part of House

CONFERENCE COMMITTEE REPORT

MR. SPEAKER and MR. PRESIDENT: Your committee on conference on Senate amendments to HB 2651 submits the following report:

Your committee on conference agrees to disagree and recommends that a new conference committee be appointed;

And your committee on conference recommends the adoption of this report.

Kellie Warren

Kenny Titus

Conferees on part of Senate

Susan Humphries

Laura Williams

Conferees on part of House

CONFERENCE COMMITTEE REPORT

MR. PRESIDENT and MR. SPEAKER: Your committee on conference on House amendments to SB 229 submits the following report:

Your committee on conference agrees to disagree and recommends that a new conference committee be appointed;

And your committee on conference recommends the adoption of this report.

Larry Alley

Stephen Owens

Conferees on part of Senate

Sean Tarwater

Jill Ward

Conferees on part of House

CONFERENCE COMMITTEE REPORT

MR. SPEAKER and MR. PRESIDENT: Your committee on conference on Senate amendments to HB 2601 submits the following report:

The House accedes to all Senate amendments to the bill, and your committee on conference further agrees to amend the bill as printed with Senate Committee of the Whole amendments, as follows:

On page 2, in line 31, after "(d)" by inserting "The court shall order the secretary to place an individual on the registry"; also in line 31, by striking "an" and inserting "the"; also in line 31, after "is" by inserting ":

(1)";

Also on page 2, also in line 31, by striking "or adjudicated to have committed"; in line 32, after the first "child" by inserting a semicolon; also in line 32, after the first "or" by inserting:

"(2)";

Also on page two, in line 33, by striking all after "children"; in line 34, by striking all before the period;

On page 3, following line 40, by inserting:

"Sec. 2. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 38-2223 is hereby amended to read as follows: 38-2223. (a) Persons making reports. (1) When any of the following persons has reason to suspect that a child has been harmed as a result of physical, mental or emotional abuse or neglect or sexual abuse, the person shall report the matter promptly as provided in subsections (b) and (c);

(A) The following persons providing medical care or treatment: Persons licensed to practice the healing arts, dentistry and optometry, persons engaged in postgraduate training programs approved by the state board of healing arts, licensed professional or practical nurses and chief administrative officers of medical care facilities;

(B) the following persons licensed by the state to provide mental health services: Licensed psychologists, licensed masters level psychologists, licensed clinical psychotherapists, licensed social workers, licensed marriage and family therapists, licensed clinical marriage and family therapists, licensed behavioral analysts, licensed assistant behavioral analysts, licensed professional counselors, licensed clinical professional counselors and registered alcohol and drug abuse counselors;

(C) teachers, school administrators and other employees of an educational institution that the child is attending and any member of the board of directors of the Kansas state high school activities association referenced in K.S.A. 72-7114, and amendments thereto, and any person who is employed by or is an officer of such association;

(D) persons licensed by the secretary of health and environment to provide child care services or the employees of persons so licensed at the place where the child care services are being provided to the child;

(E) firefighters, emergency medical services personnel, law enforcement officers, juvenile intake and assessment workers, court services officers, community corrections officers, case managers appointed under K.S.A. 23-3508, and amendments thereto, and mediators appointed under K.S.A. 23-3502, and amendments thereto; and

(F) any person employed by or who works as a volunteer for any organization, whether for profit or not-for-profit, that provides social services to pregnant teenagers, including, but not limited to, counseling, adoption services and pregnancy education and maintenance.

(2) In addition to the reports required under subsection (a)(1), any person who has reason to suspect that a child may be a child in need of care may report the matter as provided in subsection (b) and (c).

(b) Form of report. (1) The report may be made orally and shall be followed by a written report if requested. Every report shall contain, if known:

(A) The names and addresses of the child and the child's parents or other persons responsible for the child's care;

(B) the location of the child if not at the child's residence;

(C) the child's gender, race and age;

(D) the reasons why the reporter suspects the child may be a child in need of care;

(E) if abuse or neglect or sexual abuse is suspected, the nature and extent of the harm to the child, including any evidence of previous harm;

(F) any custody dispute involving the child who is the subject of the report, and if there is a known dispute, any information regarding such dispute; and

(G) any other information that the reporter believes might be helpful in establishing the cause of the harm and the identity of the persons responsible for the harm.

(2) When reporting a suspicion that a child may be in need of care, the reporter shall disclose protected health information freely and cooperate fully with the secretary and law enforcement throughout the investigation and any subsequent legal process.

(c) To whom made. Reports made pursuant to this section shall be made to the secretary, except as follows:

(1) When the Kansas department for children and families is not open for business, reports shall be made to the appropriate law enforcement agency. On the next day that the department is open for business, the law enforcement agency shall report to the department any report received and any investigation initiated pursuant to K.S.A. 38-2226, and amendments thereto. The reports may be made orally or, on request of the secretary, in writing.

(2) Reports of child abuse or neglect occurring in an institution operated by the Kansas department of corrections shall be made to the attorney general or the secretary of corrections. Reports of child abuse or neglect occurring in an institution operated by the Kansas department for aging and disability services shall be made to the appropriate law enforcement agency. All other reports of child abuse or neglect by persons employed by the Kansas department for aging and disability services or the Kansas department for children and families, or of children of persons employed by either department, shall be made to the appropriate law enforcement agency.

(d) Death of child. Any person who is required by this section to report a suspicion that a child is in need of care and who knows of information relating to the death of a child shall immediately notify the coroner as provided by K.S.A. 22a-242, and amendments thereto.

(e) Violations. (1) Willful and knowing failure to make a report required by this section is a class B misdemeanor. It is not a defense that another mandatory reporter made a report.

(2) Intentionally preventing or interfering with the making of a report required by this section is a class B misdemeanor.

(3) Any person who willfully and knowingly makes a false report pursuant to this section or makes a report that such person knows lacks factual foundation is guilty of a class B misdemeanor.

(f) Immunity from liability. Anyone who, without malice, participates in the making of a report to the secretary or a law enforcement agency relating to a suspicion a child may be a child in need of care or who participates in any activity or investigation relating to the report or who participates in any judicial proceeding resulting from the report shall have immunity from any civil liability that might otherwise be incurred or imposed.

(g) On or before January 11, 2027, and the first day of the regular session every year thereafter, the secretary shall submit a report to the house of representatives committee on child welfare and foster care, the senate committee on judiciary and the joint committee on child welfare system oversight, or any successor committee thereof. The report shall include the number of reports of abuse or neglect made to and received by the secretary that include a known custody dispute and whether such report:

(1) Was anonymously reported;

(2) was or has been assigned for investigation;

(3) led to a family needs assessment;

(4) resulted in an unsubstantiated or substantiated report; or

(5) led to an out-of-home placement.";

On page 17, in line 8, after "Supp." by inserting "38-2223,";

And by renumbering sections accordingly;

On page 1, in the title, in line 2, after the first "neglect" by inserting "and reports thereof"; in line 8, after the semicolon by inserting "requiring reports of abuse or neglect to include information regarding child custody disputes and that the secretary report to the legislature on such information;"; in line 9, after "Supp." by inserting "38-2223,";

And your committee on conference recommends the adoption of this report.

Kellie Warren

Kenny Titus

Ethan Corson

Conferees on part of Senate

Cyndi Howerton

Timothy Johnson

Jarrod Ousley

Conferees on part of House

CONFERENCE COMMITTEE REPORT

MR. SPEAKER and MR. PRESIDENT: Your committee on conference on Senate amendments to HB 2372 submits the following report:

The House accedes to all Senate amendments to the bill, and your committee on conference further agrees to amend the bill as printed as Senate Substitute for House Bill No. 2372, as follows:

On page 1, in line 12, after "sheriff" by inserting "or keeper of the jail"; in line 34, after "sheriff" by inserting "or keeper of the jail";

On page 2, in line 8, after "sheriff" by inserting "or keeper of the jail"; in line 16, after "sheriff" by inserting "or keeper of the jail"; in line 21, after "sheriff" by inserting "or keeper of the jail";

On page 3, following line 38, by inserting:

"New Sec. 5. (a) Unlawful approach of a first responder is knowingly:

(1) Approaching or remaining within 25 feet of an individual whom the person knows or reasonably should have known is a first responder;

(2) while such first responder is engaged in the performance of such first responder's duties;

(3) after receiving a visual or audible signal not to approach or remain within 25 feet of such first responder given by a first responder because of a reasonable belief, under the totality of the circumstances, that separation is necessary for the safety of any person or property; and

(4) causing such first responder to:

(A) Be distracted from performing such first responder's duties; or

(B) have an increased level of concern of physical harm to any person or damage to property.

(b) Unlawful approach of a first responder is a class B person misdemeanor.

(c) As used in this section:

(1) "First responder" means a law enforcement officer, an emergency medical services provider as defined in K.S.A. 65-6112, and amendments thereto, or a firefighter as defined in K.S.A. 40-1709, and amendments thereto; and

(2) "law enforcement officer" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 21-5111, and amendments thereto, and any federal law enforcement officer as defined in 5 U.S.C. § 8401 or 6 U.S.C. § 271.

(d) Nothing in this section shall grant law enforcement authority to a federal law enforcement officer.

(e) This section shall be a part of and supplemental to the Kansas criminal code.

Sec. 6. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 8-1102 is hereby amended to read as follows: 8-1102. (a) (1) A person shall not use the public highway to abandon vehicles or use the highway to leave vehicles unattended in such a manner as to interfere with public highway operations. When a person leaves a motor vehicle on a public highway or other property open to use by the public, the public agency having jurisdiction of such highway or other property open to use by the public, after 48 hours or when the motor vehicle interferes with public highway operations, may remove and impound the motor vehicle.

(2) Any motor vehicle that has been impounded as provided in this section for 30 days or more shall be disposed of in the following manner:

(A) If such motor vehicle has displayed thereon a registration plate issued by the division of vehicles and has been registered with the division, the public agency shall request verification from the division of vehicles of the last registered owner and any lienholders, if any. Such verification request shall be submitted to the division of vehicles not more than 30 days after such agency took possession of the vehicle. The public agency shall mail a notice by certified mail to the registered owner thereof, addressed to the address as shown on the certificate of registration, and to the lienholder, if any, of record in the county where the title shows the owner resides, if registered in this state. The notice shall state that if the owner or lienholder does not claim such motor vehicle and pay the removal and storage charges incurred by such public agency on it within 15 days from the date of the mailing of the notice, that it will be sold at public auction to the highest bidder for cash. The notice shall be mailed within 15 calendar days after receipt of verification of the last owner and any lienholders, if any, as provided in this subsection.

(B) After 15 days from date of mailing notice, the public agency shall publish a notice once a week for two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county where such motor vehicle was abandoned and left. Such notice shall describe the motor vehicle by name of maker, model, serial number, and owner, if known, and stating that it has been impounded by the public agency and that it will be sold at public auction to the highest bidder for cash if the owner thereof does not claim it within 10 days of the date of the second publication of the notice and pay the removal and storage charges, and publication costs incurred by the public agency. If the motor vehicle does not display a registration plate issued by the division of vehicles and is not registered with the division, the public agency after 30 days from the date of impoundment, shall request verification from the division of vehicles of the last registered owner and any lienholders, if any. Such verification request shall be submitted to the division of vehicles no more than 30 days after such agency took possession of the vehicle. The public agency shall mail a notice by certified mail to the registered owner thereof, addressed to the address as shown on the certificate of registration, and to the lienholder, if any, of record in the county in which the title shows the owner resides, if registered in this state. The notice shall state that if the owner or lienholder does not claim such motor vehicle and pay the removal and storage charges incurred by such public agency on it within 15 days from the date of the mailing of the notice, it will be sold at public auction to the highest bidder for cash. The notice shall be mailed within 10 days after receipt of verification of the last owner and any lienholders, if any, as provided in this subsection. After 15 days from the date of mailing notice, the public agency shall publish a notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the county where such motor vehicle was abandoned and left, which notice shall describe the motor vehicle by name of maker, model, color and serial number and shall state that it has been impounded by said public agency and will be sold at public auction to the highest bidder for cash, if the owner thereof does not claim it within 10 days of the date of the second publication of the notice and pay the removal and storage charges incurred by the public agency.

(C) When any public agency has complied with the provisions of this section with respect to an abandoned motor vehicle and the owner thereof does not claim it within the time stated in the notice and pay the removal and storage charges and publication costs incurred by the public agency on such motor vehicle, the public agency may sell the motor vehicle at public auction to the highest bidder for cash. A public agency shall provide a certification of compliance to a purchaser upon the sale and transfer of a vehicle authorized by this section.

(3) After any sale pursuant to this section, the purchaser may file proof thereof with the division of vehicles, and the division shall issue a certificate of title to the purchaser of such motor vehicle. All moneys derived from the sale of motor vehicles pursuant to this section, after payment of the expenses of the impoundment and sale, shall be paid into the fund of the public agency that is used by it for the construction or maintenance of highways.

(b) Any person who abandons and leaves a vehicle on real property, other than public property or property open to use by the public, that is not owned or leased by such person or by the owner or lessee of such vehicle shall be guilty of criminal trespass, as defined in K.S.A. 21-5808, and amendments thereto, and upon request of the owner or occupant of such real property, the public agency in whose jurisdiction such property is situated may remove and dispose of such vehicle in the manner provided in subsection (a), except that the provisions of subsection (a) requiring that a motor vehicle be abandoned for a period of time in excess of 48 hours prior to its removal shall not be applicable to abandoned vehicles that are subject to the provisions of this subsection. Any person removing such vehicle from the real property at the request of such public agency shall have a possessory lien on such vehicle for the costs incurred in removing, towing and storing such vehicle.

(c) Whenever any motor vehicle has been left unattended for more than 48 hours or when any unattended motor vehicle interferes with public highway operations or any law enforcement operations, any law enforcement officer is hereby authorized to move such vehicle or cause to have the vehicle moved as provided in K.S.A. 8-1103 et seq., and amendments thereto.

(d) The notice provisions of this section shall apply to any motor vehicle that has been impounded as provided in K.S.A. 8-1567, and amendments thereto.

(e) Any person attempting to recover a motor vehicle impounded as provided in this section or in accordance with a city ordinance or county resolution providing for the impoundment of motor vehicles, shall show proof of valid registration and ownership of the motor vehicle to the public agency before obtaining the motor vehicle. In addition, the public agency may require payment of all reasonable costs associated with the impoundment of the motor vehicle, including transportation and storage fees, prior to release of the motor vehicle.

(f) As used in this section, "law enforcement officer" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 21-5111, and amendments thereto, and any federal law enforcement officer as defined in 5 U.S.C. § 8401 or 6 U.S.C. § 271.

(g) Nothing in this section shall grant law enforcement authority to a federal law enforcement officer.

Sec. 7. K.S.A. 8-1404 is hereby amended to read as follows: 8-1404. "Authorized emergency vehicle" means such fire department vehicles or police bicycles or police vehicles which that are publicly owned, including law enforcement vehicles owned by the federal government; motor vehicles operated by ambulance services permitted by the emergency medical services board under the provisions of K.S.A. 65-6101 et seq., and amendments thereto; wreckers, tow trucks or car carriers, as defined by K.S.A. 66-1329, and amendments thereto, and having a certificate of public service from the state corporation commission; and such other publicly or privately owned vehicles which that are designated as emergency vehicles pursuant to K.S.A. 8-2010, and amendments thereto.

Sec. 8. K.S.A. 8-2010 is hereby amended to read as follows: 8-2010. (a) Any particular vehicle listed in subsection (b) of K.S.A. 8-2010a(b), and amendments thereto, shall be designated, by the board of county commissioners in which such vehicle is located, as an authorized emergency vehicle upon the filing of an application pursuant to K.S.A. 8-2010a, and amendments thereto and a finding that designation of such vehicle is necessary to the preservation of life or property or to the execution of emergency governmental functions. The designation shall be in writing and the written designation shall be carried in the vehicle at all times, but failure to carry the written designation shall not affect the status of the vehicle as an authorized emergency vehicle.

(b) Any vehicle designated as an authorized emergency vehicle prior to the effective date of this act, may continue to operate as an authorized emergency vehicle, as long as:

(1) The ownership of such vehicle remains unchanged; and

(2) the use of such vehicle for purposes for which such vehicle was designated remains unchanged, except that all future operation of such vehicle as an authorized emergency vehicle shall be in accordance with this section and such other applicable provisions of law.

(c) The following vehicles shall not be required to be designated by the board of county commissioners as authorized emergency vehicles:

(1) Fire department vehicles or police vehicles which that are publicly owned, including any such vehicles owned by the federal government;

(2) motor vehicles operated by ambulance services permitted by the emergency medical services board under the provisions of K.S.A. 65-6101 et seq., and amendments thereto; and

(3) wreckers, tow trucks or car carriers, as defined by K.S.A. 66-1329, and amendments thereto, and having a certificate of public service from the state corporation commission.

(d) Any vehicle designated under the provisions of this section, as an authorized emergency vehicle in the county in which such vehicle is located, shall be a valid designation of such vehicle in any other county and such vehicle shall be authorized to operate as an authorized emergency vehicle without being required to obtain any additional designation in any other county.";

On page 5, following line 32, by inserting:

"Sec. 10. K.S.A. 21-5904 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-5904. (a) Interference with law enforcement is:

(1) Falsely reporting to a law enforcement officer, law enforcement agency or state investigative agency:

(A) That a particular person has committed a crime, knowing that such information is false and intending that the officer or agency shall act in reliance upon such information;

(B) that a law enforcement officer has committed a crime or committed misconduct in the performance of such officer's duties, knowing that such information is false and intending that the officer or agency shall act in reliance upon such information;

(C) any information, knowing that such information is false and intending to influence, impede or obstruct such officer's or agency's duty; or

(D) any information concerning the death, disappearance or potential death or disappearance of a child under the age of 13, knowing that such information is false and intending that the officer or agency shall act in reliance upon such information;

(2) concealing, destroying or materially altering evidence with the intent to prevent or hinder the apprehension or prosecution of any person;

(3) knowingly obstructing, resisting or opposing any person authorized by law to serve process in the service or execution or in the attempt to serve or execute any writ, warrant, process or order of a court, or in the discharge of any official duty; or

(4) knowingly fleeing from a law enforcement officer, other than fleeing by operation of a motor vehicle, when the law enforcement officer has:

(A) Reason to stop the person under K.S.A. 22-2402, and amendments thereto; and

(B) given the person visual or audible signal to stop.

(b) Interference with law enforcement as defined in:

(1) Subsection (a)(1)(A) and (a)(1)(B) is a:

(A) Class A nonperson misdemeanor, except as provided in subsection (b)(1)(B); and

(B) severity level 8, nonperson felony in the case of a felony;

(2) subsection (a)(1)(C) is a:

(A) Class A nonperson misdemeanor, except as provided in subsection (b)(2)(B); and

(B) severity level 9, nonperson felony in the case of a felony;

(3) subsection (a)(1)(D) is a severity level 8, nonperson felony;

(4) subsection (a)(2) is a:

(A) Class A nonperson misdemeanor, except as provided in subsection (b)(4)(B); and

(B) severity level 8, nonperson felony in the case of a felony;

(5) subsection (a)(3) is a:

(A) Severity level 9, nonperson felony in the case of a felony, or resulting from parole or any authorized disposition for a felony; and

(B) class A nonperson misdemeanor in the case of a misdemeanor, or resulting from any authorized disposition for a misdemeanor, or a civil case; and

(6) subsection (a)(4) is a:

(A) Class A nonperson misdemeanor in the case of a misdemeanor, or resulting from any authorized disposition for a misdemeanor, or a civil case;

(B) severity level 7, nonperson felony in the case of a felony, or resulting from parole or any authorized disposition for a felony; and

(C) severity level 5, nonperson felony if the offender discharged or used a firearm while fleeing.

(c) As used in this section:

(1) "Any person authorized by law" includes, but is not limited to, a law enforcement officer as defined in paragraph (2); and

(2) "law enforcement officer" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 21-5111, and amendments thereto, and any federal law enforcement officer as defined in 5 U.S.C. § 8401 or 6 U.S.C. § 271.

(d) Nothing in this section shall grant law enforcement authority to a federal law enforcement officer.

Sec. 11. K.S.A. 21-5922 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-5922. (a) Interference with the conduct of public business in public buildings is:

(1) Conduct at or in any public building owned, operated or controlled by the United States, the state or any of its political subdivisions so as to knowingly deny to any public official, public employee or any invitee on such premises, the lawful rights of such official, employee or invitee to enter, to use the facilities or to leave any such public building;

(2) knowingly impeding any public official or employee in the lawful performance of duties or activities through the use of restraint, abduction, coercion or intimidation or by force and violence or threat thereof;

(3) knowingly refusing or failing to leave any such public building upon being requested to do so by the chief administrative officer, or such officer's designee, charged with maintaining order in such public building, if such person is committing, threatens to commit or incites others to commit, any act which that did or would if completed, disrupt, impair, interfere with or obstruct the lawful missions, processes, procedures or functions being carried on in such public building;

(4) knowingly impeding, disrupting or hindering the normal proceedings of any meeting or session conducted by any judicial or legislative body or official at any such public building by any act of intrusion into the chamber or other areas designated for the use of the body or official conducting such meeting or session, or by any act designed to intimidate, coerce or hinder any member of such body or any official engaged in the performance of duties at such meeting or session; or

(5) knowingly impeding, disrupting or hindering, by any act of intrusion into the chamber or other areas designed for the use of any executive body or official, the normal proceedings of such body or official.

(b) Aggravated interference with the conduct of public business is interference with the conduct of public business in public buildings, as defined in subsection (a), when in possession of any firearm or weapon as described in K.S.A. 21-6301 or 21-6302, and amendments thereto.

(c) (1) Interference with the conduct of public business in public buildings is a class A nonperson misdemeanor:.

(2) Aggravated interference with the conduct of public business is a level 6, person felony.

(d) Nothing in this section shall grant law enforcement authority to a federal law enforcement officer as defined in 5 U.S.C. § 8401 or 6 U.S.C. § 271.

Sec. 12. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 75-6104 is hereby amended to read as follows: 75-6104. (a) A governmental entity or an employee acting within the scope of the employee's employment shall not be liable for damages resulting from:

(1) Legislative functions, including, but not limited to, the adoption or failure to adopt any statute, regulation, ordinance or resolution;

(2) judicial function;

(3) enforcement of or failure to enforce a law, whether valid or invalid, including, but not limited to, :

(A) Any statute, rule and regulation, ordinance or resolution; or

(B) any federal law or executive order;

(4) adoption or enforcement of, or failure to adopt or enforce, any written personnel policy which that protects persons' health or safety unless a duty of care, independent of such policy, is owed to the specific individual injured, except that the finder of fact may consider the failure to comply with any written personnel policy in determining the question of negligence;

(5) any claim based upon the exercise or performance or the failure to exercise or perform a discretionary function or duty on the part of a governmental entity or employee, whether or not the discretion is abused and regardless of the level of discretion involved;

(6) the assessment or collection of taxes or special assessments;

(7) any claim by an employee of a governmental entity arising from the tortious conduct of another employee of the same governmental entity, if such claim is:

(A) Compensable pursuant to the Kansas workers compensation act; or

(B) not compensable pursuant to the Kansas workers compensation act because the injured employee was a firemen's relief association member who was exempt from such act pursuant to K.S.A. 44-505d, and amendments thereto, at the time the claim arose;

(8) the malfunction, destruction or unauthorized removal of any traffic or road sign, signal or warning device unless it is not corrected by the governmental entity responsible within a reasonable time after actual or constructive notice of such malfunction, destruction or removal. Nothing herein shall give rise to liability arising from the act or omission of any governmental entity in placing or removing any of the above signs, signals or warning devices when such placement or removal is the result of a discretionary act of the governmental entity;

(9) any claim which that is limited or barred by any other law or which is for injuries or property damage against an officer, employee or agent where the individual is immune from suit or damages;

(10) any claim based upon emergency management activities, except that governmental entities shall be liable for claims to the extent provided in article 9 of chapter 48 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto;

(11) the failure to make an inspection, or making an inadequate or negligent inspection, of any property other than the property of the governmental entity, to determine whether the property complies with or violates any law or rule and regulation or contains a hazard to public health or safety;

(12) snow or ice conditions or other temporary or natural conditions on any public way or other public place due to weather conditions, unless the condition is affirmatively caused by the negligent act of the governmental entity;

(13) the plan or design for the construction of or an improvement to public property, either in its original construction or any improvement thereto, if the plan or design is approved in advance of the construction or improvement by the governing body of the governmental entity or some other body or employee exercising discretionary authority to give such approval and if the plan or design was prepared in conformity with the generally recognized and prevailing standards in existence at the time such plan or design was prepared;

(14) failure to provide, or the method of providing, police or fire protection;

(15) any claim for injuries resulting from the use of any public property intended or permitted to be used as a park, playground or open area for recreational purposes, unless:

(A) The governmental entity or an employee thereof is guilty of gross and wanton negligence proximately causing such injury; or

(B) an employee of the governmental entity commits childhood sexual abuse as defined in K.S.A. 60-523, and amendments thereto;

(16) the natural condition of any unimproved public property of the governmental entity;

(17) any claim for injuries resulting from the use or maintenance of a public cemetery owned and operated by a municipality or an abandoned cemetery, title to which has vested in a governmental entity pursuant to K.S.A. 17-1366 through 17-1368, and amendments thereto, unless the governmental entity or an employee thereof is guilty of gross and wanton negligence proximately causing the injury;

(18) the existence, in any condition, of a minimum maintenance road, after being properly so declared and signed as provided in K.S.A. 68-5,102, and amendments thereto;

(19) any claim for damages arising from the operation of vending machines authorized pursuant to K.S.A. 68-432 or 75-3343a, and amendments thereto;

(20) providing, distributing or selling information from geographic information systems which that includes an entire formula, pattern, compilation, program, device, method, technique, process, digital database or system which that electronically records, stores, reproduces and manipulates by computer geographic and factual information which that has been developed internally or provided from other sources and compiled for use by a public agency, either alone or in cooperation with other public or private entities;

(21) any claim arising from providing a juvenile justice program to juvenile offenders, if such juvenile justice program has contracted with the commissioner of juvenile justice or with another nonprofit program that has contracted with the commissioner of juvenile justice. The provisions of this section do not apply to community service work within the scope of K.S.A. 60-3614, and amendments thereto, or to claims arising from childhood sexual abuse as defined in K.S.A. 60-523, and amendments thereto;

(22) performance of, or failure to perform, any activity pursuant to K.S.A. 74-8922, and amendments thereto, including, but not limited to, issuance and enforcement of a consent decree agreement, oversight of contaminant remediation and taking title to any or all of the federal enclave described in such statute;

(23) any claim arising from the making of a donation of used or excess fire control, fire rescue, or emergency medical services equipment to a fire department, fire district, volunteer fire department, medical emergency response team or the Kansas forest service if at the time of making the donation the donor believes that the equipment is serviceable or may be made serviceable. This subsection also applies to equipment that is acquired through the federal excess personal property program established by the federal property and administrative services act of 1949, 40 U.S.C. § 483. This subsection shall apply to any breathing apparatus or any mechanical or electrical device which that functions to monitor, evaluate, or restore basic life functions, only if it is recertified to the manufacturer's specifications by a technician certified by the manufacturer; or

(24) any claim arising from the acceptance of a donation of fire control, fire rescue or emergency medical services equipment, if at the time of the donation the donee reasonably believes that the equipment is serviceable or may be made serviceable and if after placing the donated equipment into service, the donee maintains the donated equipment in a safe and serviceable manner.

(b) The enumeration of exceptions to liability in this section shall not be construed to be exclusive nor as legislative intent to waive immunity from liability in the performance or failure to perform any other act or function of a discretionary nature.

(c) The exceptions to liability in subsections (a)(1) through (a)(4) shall not be construed to preclude, prohibit or otherwise limit a claim for damages arising from childhood sexual abuse as defined in K.S.A. 60-523, and amendments thereto. Failure of a governmental entity to adopt or enforce a policy, regulation or law related to childhood sexual abuse and failure to exercise reasonable discretion in the supervision of a governmental employee who commits childhood sexual abuse may be considered by the trier of fact in determining the question of a governmental entity's negligence.";

Also on page 5, in line 33, after "K.S.A." by inserting "8-1404, 8-2010,"; also in line 33, by striking "is" and inserting ", 21-5904 and 21-5922 and K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 8-1102 and 75-6104 are";

And by renumbering sections accordingly;

On page 1, in the title, in line 1, by striking "immigration" and inserting "law enforcement; creating the crime of unlawful approach of a first responder and providing penalties therefor; requiring traffic laws that apply to local and state law enforcement to apply to federal law enforcement; including federal law enforcement in the definitions used in the crime of interference with law enforcement; including buildings owned by the United States in the crime of interference with the conduct of public business in public buildings; including enforcement of federal laws and executive orders in the exceptions from liability in the tort claims act"; in line 8, after "K.S.A." by inserting "8-1404, 8-2010,"; also in line 8, after "12-2904" by inserting ", 21-5904 and 21-5922 and K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 8-1102 and 75-6104"; in line 9, by striking "section" and inserting "sections";

And your committee on conference recommends the adoption of this report.

Mike Thompson

Tory Marie Blew

Conferees on part of Senate

Tom Kessler

Rebecca Schmoe

Conferees on part of House